ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A client who is postoperative following a colon resection reports pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Assist the client in changing positions in bed
- B. Administer a PRN dose of morphine
- C. Encourage the client to use relaxation techniques
- D. Offer the client a back massage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of morphine is the most appropriate action to manage postoperative pain in a client following a colon resection. Morphine is a potent analgesic commonly used to relieve moderate to severe pain, especially in postoperative settings. While assisting the client to change positions in bed, encouraging relaxation techniques, and offering a back massage can provide comfort and support, they may not be sufficient in managing the pain following a major surgical procedure like a colon resection. Therefore, the priority intervention for acute postoperative pain control in this scenario is to administer medication like morphine.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Obtain the client's vital signs.
- B. Ensure the client's IV access is patent.
- C. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- D. Verify the client's identity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Verifying the client's identity is the first crucial action the healthcare professional should take before administering a blood transfusion. This step ensures that the right blood is given to the right client, helping prevent errors. Obtaining vital signs, ensuring IV access, and priming IV tubing are important steps in the process but verifying the client's identity takes precedence for patient safety and accurate care delivery.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 58/min
- B. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours
- C. Respiratory rate of 20/min
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A heart rate of 58/min is indicative of bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity, which should be reported immediately. While weight gain, respiratory rate, and temperature are important parameters to monitor, they are not as critical as identifying bradycardia in a client taking digoxin.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. Increased shortness of breath.
- B. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb).
- C. Clear lung sounds.
- D. Bounding pulse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate a therapeutic effect of furosemide, as the medication helps reduce fluid overload in heart failure. Choice A, increased shortness of breath, is incorrect as furosemide is used to relieve symptoms like shortness of breath. Choice B, weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb), is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid retention leading to weight loss. Choice D, bounding pulse, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact the pulse rate.
5. A client with liver cirrhosis is experiencing confusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
- B. Ammonia 145 mcg/dL
- C. Albumin 4 g/dL
- D. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia 145 mcg/dL. An elevated ammonia level can indicate hepatic encephalopathy in clients with liver cirrhosis, leading to confusion. Bilirubin (Choice A) is within the normal range, indicating adequate liver function. Albumin (Choice C) and Hemoglobin (Choice D) levels are also within normal limits and are not directly related to the client's confusion in this scenario.
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