ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours.
- B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
- C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails.
- D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.
2. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Prepare for surgery
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Massage the affected extremity to promote circulation.
- B. Elevate the affected extremity.
- C. Apply cold packs to the affected extremity.
- D. Perform range-of-motion exercises on the affected extremity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with DVT is to apply cold packs to the affected extremity. Cold packs can help reduce swelling and pain by constricting blood vessels. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and worsen the condition. Elevating the affected extremity helps with blood flow but is not the priority intervention for DVT. Performing range-of-motion exercises on the affected extremity can also dislodge a clot and is contraindicated.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn's heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Auscultate the apical pulse and count for 1 minute
- B. Place a sensor on the index finger
- C. Heat the skin prior to placing the probe
- D. Recheck after 10 minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Auscultating the apical pulse and counting for one minute is the appropriate method to accurately measure a newborn's heart rate. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximum impulse (PMI), which is usually at the fourth or fifth intercostal space along the mid-clavicular line. This method allows for a precise assessment of the newborn's heart rate. Choice B, placing a sensor on the index finger, is incorrect because this method is more suitable for measuring oxygen saturation rather than heart rate. Choice C, heating the skin prior to placing the probe, is unnecessary for assessing heart rate and may lead to potential burns in newborns. Choice D, rechecking after 10 minutes, is not appropriate as immediate assessment and intervention may be required if an abnormal heart rate is detected in a newborn.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Grilled chicken.
- B. Fresh fruit.
- C. White bread.
- D. Cheddar cheese.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
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