ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours.
- B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
- C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails.
- D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Tinnitus.
- B. Photosensitivity.
- C. Urinary frequency.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.
3. A client with asthma is being taught how to use a peak flow meter by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Blow as hard as possible into the mouthpiece.
- B. Exhale quickly and forcefully after taking a deep breath.
- C. Inhale as deeply as possible and then blow into the mouthpiece.
- D. Take a deep breath and hold it for 5 seconds before exhaling.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should exhale quickly and forcefully into the peak flow meter after taking a deep breath to measure peak expiratory flow. Choice A is incorrect as blowing as hard as possible may not provide an accurate reading. Choice C is incorrect because inhaling deeply before blowing can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as holding the breath before exhaling is not part of using a peak flow meter.
4. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
- B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
- C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
- D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is the appropriate intervention when caring for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing mania. During manic episodes, individuals often exhibit hyperactivity and may become exhausted. Rest periods can help reduce these symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Spending time in the day room may not address the client's need for rest, withdrawing TV privileges is not directly related to managing mania symptoms, and placing the client in seclusion when anxious can escalate the situation rather than promoting a calming environment.
5. A nurse is providing teaching about immunizations to a client who is pregnant. The nurse should inform the client that she can receive which of the following immunizations during pregnancy?
- A. Varicella vaccine.
- B. Inactivated polio vaccine.
- C. Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis vaccine.
- D. Inactivated influenza vaccine.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine. The Tdap vaccine can be safely administered during pregnancy to protect both the mother and the newborn against whooping cough. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Varicella vaccine, Inactivated polio vaccine, and Inactivated influenza vaccine are generally not recommended during pregnancy due to safety concerns.
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