a nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints which of the following guidelines should the nurse include
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ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Urinary retention is an adverse effect of morphine, as it can lead to the relaxation of the detrusor muscle and sphincter constriction in the bladder. Diaphoresis, hypotension, and tachycardia are common side effects of morphine due to its vasodilatory effects and impact on the autonomic nervous system. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating, which can be a normal response to pain or fever. Hypotension and tachycardia can occur due to morphine's vasodilatory effects and its impact on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, the presence of urinary retention would indicate the need for further assessment and intervention.

3. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever, the priority action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion immediately. A fever during a blood transfusion may indicate a transfusion reaction, and stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Administering an antihistamine (choice B) or a diuretic (choice C) without assessing and addressing the potential transfusion reaction can be harmful. Increasing the transfusion rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate any adverse reactions the client is experiencing.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories is a crucial component of the dietary management for hypertension. This dietary modification helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because medication adherence should not be based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is inadequate as blood pressure monitoring should be more frequent, preferably daily, for effective management of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because medication for hypertension should be taken consistently as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. This medication promotes potassium excretion and helps lower serum potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia, which is indicated by a high potassium level. Sodium bicarbonate (choice A) is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate (choice C) and calcium carbonate (choice D) are used to manage hyperkalemia by stabilizing cell membranes but are not the initial treatment choice for lowering potassium levels.

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