ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours.
- B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
- C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails.
- D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.
2. A client with a new prescription for furosemide should increase intake of which of the following?
- A. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. You should take this medication at bedtime.
- D. You should avoid taking this medication with food.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, which means it can lead to low potassium levels in the body. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods helps counteract this effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide should not necessarily be taken on an empty stomach, at bedtime, or specifically avoided with food.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
- B. aPTT 60 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
- D. INR 1.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
4. A nurse is providing teaching about folic acid to a client who is primigravida. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should take folic acid to prevent neural tube defects in your baby.
- B. You should consume at least 400 micrograms of folic acid daily.
- C. You can increase your dietary intake of folic acid by consuming cereals and citrus fruits.
- D. You should expect improved energy levels when taking folic acid supplements.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects, and dietary sources like cereals and citrus fruits are good options to increase folic acid intake. Choice A is incorrect because folic acid is primarily recommended to prevent neural tube defects, not to prevent infections. Choice B is incorrect because the recommended daily intake of folic acid for pregnant women is at least 400 micrograms, not 300. Choice D is incorrect because folic acid is not typically associated with improving energy levels.
5. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and experiencing nausea and vomiting is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.
- B. You should drink ginger ale with your meals.
- C. You should lie down for 30 minutes after eating.
- D. You should avoid eating between meals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.' Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help reduce nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This recommendation helps in stabilizing blood sugar levels before fully waking up. Choice B is incorrect because ginger ale may exacerbate nausea due to its carbonation. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after eating can worsen symptoms of nausea. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding eating between meals can lead to low blood sugar levels, worsening nausea and vomiting.
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