Nursing Elites

1. A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take with a glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Take with orange juice to enhance absorption.
• C. Take on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
• D. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?

• A. Abdominal cramps
• B. Irritability
• C. Increased thirst
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is a common early manifestation of hypoglycemia. When blood glucose levels drop, the brain perceives this as a stressor, leading to irritability. Abdominal cramps (choice A) are not typically associated with hypoglycemia but can occur with other gastrointestinal issues. Increased thirst (choice C) is more indicative of hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia. Blurred vision (choice D) is a symptom more commonly associated with hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube following thoracic surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Clamp the chest tube when assisting the client out of bed.
• B. Empty the drainage system every 8 hours.
• C. Keep the collection device below the client's chest.
• D. Strip the chest tube every 4 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep the collection device below the client's chest. This positioning ensures proper drainage of fluid from the chest, preventing backflow of fluids. Clamping the chest tube when assisting the client out of bed is incorrect as it can lead to fluid accumulation and potential complications. Emptying the drainage system every 8 hours is necessary but not the priority over maintaining proper positioning. Stripping the chest tube every 4 hours is an outdated practice and can cause damage to the tissue and should be avoided.

4. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
• B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
• C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
• D. Client reports dyspnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

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