ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with a glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Take with orange juice to enhance absorption.
- C. Take on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
- D. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
- B. I will increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication at bedtime to avoid dizziness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients taking warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 140 mEq/L. An elevated sodium level can affect the effectiveness of digoxin therapy and may lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the provider. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are important as well, but elevated sodium can have a more direct impact on digoxin therapy in this scenario.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
- A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
- B. Position the client on the left side during feedings.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
- D. Check gastric residual every 2 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.
5. When teaching a client about nutritional intake, what should be included?
- A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake.
- B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake.
- C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake.
- D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a client about nutritional intake, it is important to mention that carbohydrates should constitute at least 45% of their daily caloric intake for a balanced diet. This macronutrient provides energy and is essential for proper bodily functions. Choice B is incorrect because protein should typically account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is too low for the recommended carbohydrate intake, as it should be higher at 45%. Choice D is incorrect as protein intake should generally be around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.
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