ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application.
- B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin.
- C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch.
- D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves when applying the transdermal nicotine patch to prevent the nurse from absorbing nicotine through the skin. Choice A is incorrect because shaving hairy areas of skin is not necessary for applying a transdermal patch. Choice C is incorrect as transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch, not necessarily within 1 hour. Choice D is incorrect because the previous patch should be disposed of properly following institutional guidelines, not placed in a tissue.
2. What is the right to make one's own personal decisions, even though those decisions might not be in the person's best interest?
- A. Autonomy
- B. Non-maleficence
- C. Justice
- D. Beneficence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Autonomy. Autonomy is the right to make one's own decisions, even if they may not be in the person's best interest. Autonomy emphasizes an individual's freedom to choose and act according to their own values and beliefs. Non-maleficence (B) refers to the principle of 'do no harm,' Justice (C) refers to fairness and equality in the distribution of resources or benefits, and Beneficence (D) refers to the obligation to do good and act in the patient's best interest.
3. After sustaining a closed head injury and numerous lacerations and abrasions to the face and neck, a five-year-old child is admitted to the emergency room. The client is unconscious and has minimal response to noxious stimuli. Which of the following assessments, if observed by the nurse three hours after admission, should be reported to the physician?
- A. The client has slight edema of the eyelids
- B. There is clear fluid draining from the client's right ear
- C. There is some bleeding from the child's lacerations
- D. The client withdraws in response to painful stimuli
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clear fluid draining from the ear can indicate cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a serious concern after a head injury. This leakage can signify a skull fracture or damage to the meninges, potentially leading to infection. Therefore, it should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are typical findings after head trauma and are not as urgent as the presence of clear fluid draining from the ear.
4. A client is to start taking furosemide and is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?
- A. Cabbage
- B. Bananas
- C. Carrots
- D. Potatoes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which helps counter the potassium-depleting effects of furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so including potassium-rich foods like bananas in the diet can help maintain a healthy potassium level. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the potassium needs associated with furosemide therapy and are not the most appropriate recommendations in this context.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
- B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
- C. A hemoglobin A1c of 6%
- D. A fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which may necessitate insulin adjustment to better control the client's blood sugar levels. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL (choice A) is within the normal range, a hemoglobin A1c of 6% (choice C) is indicative of good long-term blood sugar control, and a fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL (choice D) is also within the normal range. Therefore, these findings do not require immediate reporting to the provider.
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