ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Nausea
- C. Skin irritation
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During radiation therapy for breast cancer, one common side effect is skin irritation due to the impact of radiation on the skin cells. This side effect should be closely monitored by the nurse. Fatigue may also occur as a side effect of radiation therapy, but skin irritation is more specific to the treatment area and is a priority in this case. Nausea and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices.
2. When should healthcare professionals perform hand hygiene?
- A. Before and after patient contact
- B. Before and after performing procedures
- C. After using the restroom
- D. After touching contaminated surfaces
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Healthcare professionals should perform hand hygiene before and after patient contact to prevent the spread of infections. While choices B, C, and D are also important times to practice hand hygiene, they are not as crucial as before and after patient contact because patient contact poses a higher risk of transmitting infections.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Increased skin turgor.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Bounding pulse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of dehydration because the body tries to compensate for the reduced fluid volume by increasing the heart rate. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically seen in dehydration as the body tries to maintain perfusion. Increased skin turgor (choice B) is actually a sign of dehydration, but tachycardia is a more specific finding. A bounding pulse (choice D) is associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or aortic regurgitation, not dehydration.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Turn the client every 2 hours
- B. Use a donut-shaped cushion when sitting
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
- D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for preventing pressure ulcers in a client at risk is to turn the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and preventing tissue damage. Using a donut-shaped cushion can actually increase pressure on the skin and worsen the risk of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for preventing aspiration in some cases but does not directly address pressure ulcer prevention. Massaging reddened areas can further damage the skin and increase the risk of pressure ulcer development by causing friction and shearing forces.
5. A nurse is assessing a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. What symptom should the nurse expect?
- A. Periorbital edema.
- B. Decreased frequency of urination.
- C. Enuresis.
- D. Diarrhea.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Enuresis. Enuresis, which refers to involuntary urination, is a common symptom of urinary tract infections in children. Periorbital edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome. Decreased frequency of urination (choice B) is not typically seen in urinary tract infections, as these infections often present with increased frequency. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a typical symptom of a urinary tract infection.
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