how should a nurse manage a patient with fluid overload in heart failure
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid overload in heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is crucial in managing a patient with fluid overload in heart failure. Weight fluctuations can indicate fluid retention or loss, guiding healthcare professionals in adjusting treatment. While checking for edema (Choice B) and monitoring intake and output (Choice C) are important aspects of patient care, they are not as direct in assessing fluid overload as daily weight monitoring. Administering diuretics (Choice D) is a treatment option based on the assessment of fluid overload, making it a secondary intervention compared to monitoring weight.

2. What is the best intervention for a patient presenting with respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most critical intervention for a patient in respiratory distress as it helps improve oxygenation levels. Oxygen therapy aims to increase oxygen saturation in the blood, providing relief and support during episodes of respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators may be beneficial in some cases, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation. Repositioning the patient may help optimize ventilation but does not directly address the primary need for increased oxygen. Providing humidified air can offer comfort but does not address the urgent need for improved oxygen levels in a patient experiencing respiratory distress.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has DVT. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with DVT is to elevate the affected extremity when in bed. Elevation helps reduce swelling by promoting venous return. Limiting fluid intake could lead to dehydration and is not recommended. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot, leading to serious complications. Applying cold packs can cause vasoconstriction and should be avoided in DVT.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated, indicating a possible infection or inflammatory response, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client postoperative, so they do not require immediate reporting. Elevated temperature can be a sign of infection or other complications, making it a priority for reporting and further assessment.

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