ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Tachycardia.
- C. Nausea.
- D. Blurred vision.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.
2. A client is immediately postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following positions should the nurse maintain for the client?
- A. Supine with legs extended
- B. Semi-Fowler's position with legs bent
- C. Lateral position with an abduction pillow between the legs
- D. Prone with legs elevated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct position for a client immediately postoperative following a hip arthroplasty is the lateral position with an abduction pillow between the legs. This position helps prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis and maintains proper alignment of the hip joint. Supine position with legs extended (Choice A) may put stress on the hip joint, Semi-Fowler's position with legs bent (Choice B) may not provide adequate support and alignment, and prone position with legs elevated (Choice D) is not recommended after hip arthroplasty as it can compromise the surgical site and increase the risk of complications.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased WBC count.
- B. Decreased hemoglobin.
- C. Decreased platelet count.
- D. Positive rheumatoid factor.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Positive rheumatoid factor. A positive rheumatoid factor is a common laboratory finding in clients with rheumatoid arthritis, indicating an autoimmune response. Option A, increased WBC count, is not typically associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Option B, decreased hemoglobin, and option C, decreased platelet count, are not specific laboratory findings for rheumatoid arthritis.
4. A client is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypocalcemia?
- A. Constipation
- B. Numbness and tingling of the fingers
- C. Increased thirst
- D. Frequent urination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia, a condition that may result from inadvertent damage to the parathyroid glands during a thyroidectomy. These symptoms occur due to decreased levels of calcium in the bloodstream affecting nerve function. Choices A, C, and D are not typical manifestations of hypocalcemia. Constipation is more associated with hypercalcemia, increased thirst can be seen in diabetes or dehydration, and frequent urination is a symptom more commonly linked to conditions like diabetes or urinary tract issues.
5. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Monitor potassium levels
- B. Monitor sodium levels
- C. Monitor calcium levels
- D. Monitor glucose levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.
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