ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the best initial nursing intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Check oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best initial nursing intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism because it helps address hypoxia, a common complication of this condition. Oxygen therapy can improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Administering anticoagulants (Choice B) is a treatment option for confirmed pulmonary embolism but not the initial intervention. Repositioning the patient (Choice C) and checking oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important assessments but do not address the immediate need to improve oxygenation in a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- B. Pink-tinged urine
- C. Small blood clots in the urine
- D. Blood pressure of 114/78 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The presence of small blood clots in the urine is an expected finding after a TURP due to the surgical manipulation of the prostate bed and the bladder. However, larger clots can indicate excessive bleeding and should be reported promptly. Urine output of 30 mL/hr is within the expected range for post-TURP clients, indicating adequate kidney perfusion. Pink-tinged urine is also normal after a TURP due to minor bleeding from the surgical site. A blood pressure of 114/78 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not require immediate reporting.
3. A nurse is caring for a client in labor who is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?
- A. Fetal hypoxia
- B. Abruptio placentae
- C. Post maturity
- D. Head compression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a nurse notes early decelerations in electronic fetal monitoring, it indicates head compression, which is generally considered benign and not associated with fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, or post maturity. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are a normal response to fetal head compression during labor.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Chicken breast
- B. Pasta
- C. Spinach
- D. Yogurt
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.
5. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take my medication only when I feel dizzy.
- B. I will check my blood pressure at least once a week.
- C. I will limit my saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories.
- D. I will take my medication only when I have symptoms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories is a crucial component of the dietary management for hypertension. This dietary modification helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because medication adherence should not be based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is inadequate as blood pressure monitoring should be more frequent, preferably daily, for effective management of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because medication for hypertension should be taken consistently as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.
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