a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has irritable bowel syndrome ibs which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Avoid foods that are high in fat." Clients with IBS should avoid foods high in fat as they can exacerbate symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. High-fiber foods, choice A, can sometimes worsen symptoms in individuals with IBS. Increasing intake of dairy products, choice C, may also worsen symptoms for some individuals with IBS, especially if they are lactose intolerant. Drinking carbonated beverages, choice D, can contribute to bloating and gas, making symptoms worse for individuals with IBS.

2. A client is prescribed albuterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Albuterol can cause tremors as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness and preparedness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking albuterol before meals, limiting caffeine intake, or taking it at bedtime are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects of albuterol like tremors.

3. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.

5. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.

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