ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Hypotension
- C. Urinary retention
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Urinary retention is an adverse effect of morphine, as it can lead to the relaxation of the detrusor muscle and sphincter constriction in the bladder. Diaphoresis, hypotension, and tachycardia are common side effects of morphine due to its vasodilatory effects and impact on the autonomic nervous system. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating, which can be a normal response to pain or fever. Hypotension and tachycardia can occur due to morphine's vasodilatory effects and its impact on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, the presence of urinary retention would indicate the need for further assessment and intervention.
2. While caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
- B. Administer a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Check the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours.
- D. Flush the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours is essential when managing a client on TPN to monitor for hyperglycemia, a common complication. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not a priority in this scenario. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice B) is not indicated as it is unrelated to managing TPN. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water (Choice D) is necessary, but it should be done with 0.9% sodium chloride, not water.
3. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?
- A. A client receives antibiotics 2 hours late.
- B. A client vomits within 20 minutes of taking morning medications.
- C. A client requests a statin to be administered at 2100.
- D. A client asks for pain medication 1 hour early.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering antibiotics late must be reported as it can compromise the effectiveness of the treatment. This delay can lead to subtherapeutic levels of the antibiotic in the client's system, potentially reducing its efficacy in combating the infection. Choice B, a client vomiting shortly after taking medication, should be noted but does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is a frequent occurrence. It could indicate a possible adverse reaction or intolerance to the medication. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication slightly earlier, do not involve medication errors or deviations that pose immediate risks to the client's health, so they do not require incident reports.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has fibromyalgia and requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Pregabalin
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Colchicine
- D. Codeine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregabalin. Pregabalin is a first-line medication for treating pain in clients with fibromyalgia. It works by decreasing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Choice B, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not indicated for fibromyalgia pain. Choice C, Colchicine, is used to treat gout by reducing inflammation and not indicated for fibromyalgia. Choice D, Codeine, is an opioid analgesic that is not typically recommended for fibromyalgia due to concerns about tolerance and dependence.
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