Nursing Elites

1. What is the best intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Administer anticoagulants
• B. Apply compression stockings
• C. Encourage ambulation
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Applying compression stockings can help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of clot formation. Encouraging ambulation is beneficial for overall circulation but may not be sufficient to treat DVT. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important, but it is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Limit fluid intake
• B. Increase potassium intake
• C. Provide a high-protein diet
• D. Administer IV antibiotics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Limiting fluid intake is essential in managing patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen kidney function. Increasing potassium intake is not recommended as patients with kidney disease often need to limit potassium. Providing a high-protein diet may put extra strain on the kidneys, so it is not ideal. Administering IV antibiotics is not a standard treatment for chronic kidney disease.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values indicates the TPN is effective?

• A. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
• B. Hemoglobin 8 g/dL
• C. WBC count 15,000/mm3
• D. Blood glucose 110 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL indicates that the TPN is effective in maintaining normal glucose levels. Hemoglobin level (choice B) is related to anemia and not directly indicative of TPN effectiveness. Albumin level (choice A) is a marker of nutritional status over a longer term and may not reflect immediate TPN effectiveness. White blood cell count (choice C) is related to infection or inflammation and is not a direct indicator of TPN effectiveness.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL
• B. Urine output of 45 mL/hr
• C. Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL
• D. Calcium 9 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.

Similar Questions