a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea the nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. The client reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take when a client reports severe postoperative pain of 8 out of 10 is to administer oxycodone 10 mg PO. Oxycodone is a potent analgesic that is more effective in managing severe pain compared to ibuprofen, making choice A incorrect. Repositioning the client to the unaffected side or applying a cold compress may provide some comfort but are not the priority interventions for severe postoperative pain, making choices C and D less appropriate.

3. A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.

4. A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking digoxin should check their pulse before each dose to ensure it is within the appropriate range. Option A is incorrect because stopping the medication based solely on a heart rate below 80/min is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as having a pulse above 100/min doesn't necessarily indicate a need to stop digoxin. Option D is incorrect because digoxin should not be taken with an antacid as it can interfere with its absorption.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it helps justify the need for seclusion, provides a clear record of events leading up to the intervention, and ensures transparency in the client's care. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is important for hydration but is not directly related to the situation of seclusion. Discussing the inappropriate behavior with the client (Choice C) may not be safe or appropriate when seclusion is necessary for preventing harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but may not be the most immediate action needed when seclusion is already in place.

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