Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Respiratory acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Drainage of 75 mL in the past 24 hours.
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• C. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• D. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the provider as it can indicate an air leak. This finding suggests that air is escaping from the pleural space, which can lead to lung collapse or pneumothorax. Drainage of 75 mL in the past 24 hours is within the expected range for a client with a chest tube and is not a cause for concern. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is a normal finding that indicates the system is functioning properly. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is also an expected finding that shows the fluctuation of fluid with the client's breathing and is not alarming.

3. A client at risk for osteoporosis is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• B. I should increase my intake of vitamin D.
• C. I should reduce my intake of dairy products.
• D. I will increase my intake of foods high in calcium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should increase my intake of vitamin D.' Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for calcium absorption, which is essential for bone health and preventing osteoporosis. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (choice A) would be detrimental as weight-bearing activities help improve bone density. Reducing dairy intake (choice C) is not recommended as dairy products are a good source of calcium. While increasing calcium intake (choice D) is important, ensuring sufficient vitamin D levels for proper absorption is equally crucial for bone health.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Increased serum sodium
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH), the nurse should expect hyponatremia. SIADH leads to excess water retention, diluting the sodium levels in the blood, resulting in low serum sodium levels. Choice A, increased urine output, is incorrect as SIADH causes water retention, leading to decreased urine output. Choice B, increased serum sodium, is incorrect because SIADH causes a dilutional effect due to water retention, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is unrelated to SIADH and not a typical finding.

5. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
• B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
• C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is an appropriate intervention for managing mania in a client with bipolar disorder. During a manic episode, individuals often have increased energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and may engage in high-risk behaviors. Encouraging regular rest periods can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation, which may assist in stabilizing mood. Choices A and B are not as effective in managing manic symptoms, as they do not directly address the client's need for rest and relaxation. Choice D is inappropriate because placing the client in seclusion can increase feelings of anxiety and agitation, worsening the manic episode.

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