ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.
2. A client receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) should have naloxone administered if their respiratory rate is below 10/min. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 4 hours.
- B. Ask the client to rate their pain every 2 hours.
- C. Administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate is below 10/min.
- D. Evaluate the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate falls below 10/min. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening situation. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every 4 hours (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as respiratory depression requires immediate attention. Asking the client to rate their pain every 2 hours (Choice B) is important for pain management but addressing respiratory depression takes precedence. Evaluating the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours (Choice D) is a routine nursing intervention but does not directly address the urgent need to reverse respiratory depression in this case.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common sign of hypoglycemia due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Tachycardia (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Dry mouth (choice B) is not a typical finding in hypoglycemia but may be seen in hyperglycemia. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a typical sign of hypoglycemia and is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Limit the client's fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day.
- B. Encourage the client to walk every 2 hours.
- C. Monitor the client's weight daily.
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with heart failure is to monitor the client's weight daily. Daily weight monitoring is essential to assess fluid balance and detect any signs of worsening heart failure. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day (Choice A) may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the initial priority for this client. Encouraging the client to walk every 2 hours (Choice B) is generally beneficial for mobility but may not be directly related to managing heart failure. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min (Choice D) is a supportive measure for hypoxia but does not directly address heart failure management.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- B. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.
- C. Administer the blood over 8 hours.
- D. Use a 22-gauge needle for venous access.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor. This action is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered, matching the client's blood type and Rh factor, which helps prevent transfusion reactions. Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice A) is not directly related to ensuring the correct blood product is administered. Administering the blood over 8 hours (Choice C) is not the standard practice for packed RBCs, which are usually given over a shorter period. Using a 22-gauge needle for venous access (Choice D) is not specific to the preparation for administering packed RBCs.
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