a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea the nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. What is the first intervention when a patient has difficulty breathing post-surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial intervention for a patient experiencing breathing difficulties post-surgery. Providing oxygen helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and elevating the head of the bed are important interventions but administering oxygen takes precedence in addressing hypoxia and respiratory compromise.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

4. A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a client with a surgical wound. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to maintain the sterile field?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to maintain a sterile field is to avoid reaching over it. This prevents contamination of the sterile environment by reducing the risk of unintentionally dropping microorganisms from non-sterile areas onto the sterile field. Opening sterile packages using the flap closest to your body first (choice A) is a good practice but not directly related to maintaining the sterile field. Donning sterile gloves before opening the sterile package (choice B) is crucial for maintaining sterility but not specific to maintaining the sterile field. Placing sterile items at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field (choice D) is important to prevent accidental contamination, but it is not the primary action to maintain the sterile field.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Burning sensation in the chest. A burning sensation in the chest is a classic symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Abdominal distention (Choice A) is not typically associated with GERD; it is more commonly seen in conditions like bowel obstruction. Constipation (Choice C) is not a hallmark symptom of GERD, as it is more related to gastrointestinal motility issues. Frequent belching (Choice D) can occur with GERD, but it is not as specific or characteristic as the burning sensation in the chest.

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