ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to increased bleeding tendencies. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to preventing infections in immunocompromised clients. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically targeted at managing thrombocytopenia.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?
- A. First-degree AV block.
- B. Premature ventricular contraction.
- C. Sinus bradycardia.
- D. Atrial fibrillation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.
3. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?
- A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
- B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
- C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm of the edge of the sterile field.
- D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm below waist level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When setting up a sterile field for a dressing change, the nurse should open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body. This action helps maintain the sterility of the field by minimizing the risk of contamination. Option A is incorrect because the cap from the solution should be placed sterile side down to prevent contamination. Option C is incorrect because the sterile dressing should be placed at least 1.25 cm away from the edge of the sterile field to maintain its sterility. Option D is incorrect because the sterile field should be set up above waist level to prevent potential contamination from reaching the field.
4. A client with a new prescription for furosemide should increase intake of which of the following?
- A. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. You should take this medication at bedtime.
- D. You should avoid taking this medication with food.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, which means it can lead to low potassium levels in the body. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods helps counteract this effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide should not necessarily be taken on an empty stomach, at bedtime, or specifically avoided with food.
5. A client with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use the inhaler as needed for acute symptoms.
- B. Rinse the mouth after each use.
- C. Take the medication only during asthma attacks.
- D. Administer a bronchodilator after using the corticosteroid.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction is to rinse the mouth after each use of a corticosteroid inhaler to prevent oral candidiasis (thrush). Choice A is incorrect because corticosteroid inhalers are usually used on a regular schedule to control asthma symptoms, not just for acute symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as corticosteroid inhalers are typically used for long-term management, not just during asthma attacks. Choice D is incorrect as administering a bronchodilator after using a corticosteroid is not a standard practice and is not necessary for the effectiveness of the corticosteroid inhaler.
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