a nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia which action should the nurse include in the care plan
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ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to increased bleeding tendencies. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to preventing infections in immunocompromised clients. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically targeted at managing thrombocytopenia.

2. A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.

4. Which medication is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is specifically used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose by binding to opioid receptors and blocking the effects of opioids. Epinephrine is mainly used to treat severe allergic reactions, Atropine is used for certain types of heart conditions and to reduce salivation or respiratory secretions, and Lidocaine is a local anesthetic used for numbing purposes. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect in the context of reversing opioid overdose.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular exercise is an essential component in managing hypertension. Exercising for at least 30 minutes a day, at least 5 days a week, can help control blood pressure. Checking blood pressure regularly (choice A) is important, but not as indicative of understanding the teaching as the commitment to regular exercise. Avoiding foods high in potassium (choice B) is not a typical recommendation for managing hypertension. Taking medication only when feeling dizzy (choice D) is incorrect and potentially dangerous; medications should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider.

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