how should a nurse respond to a patient with a history of hypertension who is non compliant with medication
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging compliance through education is crucial in helping patients understand the importance of consistent medication use. By providing education, the patient can make informed decisions about their health and better manage their condition. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but the initial approach should focus on patient education. Documenting the refusal (choice C) is important for legal and medical records but does not address the root cause of non-compliance. Exploring alternative treatment options (choice D) should come after efforts to educate and encourage compliance with the current medication regimen.

2. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

3. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

4. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed levothyroxine is to take the medication at the same time every day. This consistency is important for maintaining stable thyroid hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to ensure proper absorption. Choice C is important but not directly related to the administration of levothyroxine. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial as it helps in detecting and addressing any bleeding complications that may arise from the dialysis procedure. Choice A is incorrect because medications should not be withheld unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as dextrose 5% in water is not typically used for orthostatic hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as giving an antibiotic before dialysis is not a routine practice unless specifically prescribed for a particular reason.

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