ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Limit the client's fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day.
- B. Encourage the client to walk every 2 hours.
- C. Monitor the client's weight daily.
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with heart failure is to monitor the client's weight daily. Daily weight monitoring is essential to assess fluid balance and detect any signs of worsening heart failure. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day (Choice A) may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the initial priority for this client. Encouraging the client to walk every 2 hours (Choice B) is generally beneficial for mobility but may not be directly related to managing heart failure. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min (Choice D) is a supportive measure for hypoxia but does not directly address heart failure management.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Increased skin turgor.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Bounding pulse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of dehydration because the body tries to compensate for the reduced fluid volume by increasing the heart rate. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically seen in dehydration as the body tries to maintain perfusion. Increased skin turgor (choice B) is actually a sign of dehydration, but tachycardia is a more specific finding. A bounding pulse (choice D) is associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or aortic regurgitation, not dehydration.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.
- B. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.
- D. I will take this medication for 2 weeks and then stop.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.' When taking prednisone, clients should avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choice B is incorrect because prednisone is usually taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect because clients should not stop taking prednisone abruptly, even if they experience nausea. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone should be tapered off gradually under healthcare provider guidance instead of being stopped abruptly after 2 weeks.
4. A client at risk for osteoporosis is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid weight-bearing exercises.
- B. I should increase my intake of vitamin D.
- C. I should reduce my intake of dairy products.
- D. I will increase my intake of foods high in calcium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should increase my intake of vitamin D.' Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for calcium absorption, which is essential for bone health and preventing osteoporosis. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (choice A) would be detrimental as weight-bearing activities help improve bone density. Reducing dairy intake (choice C) is not recommended as dairy products are a good source of calcium. While increasing calcium intake (choice D) is important, ensuring sufficient vitamin D levels for proper absorption is equally crucial for bone health.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- B. Heart rate of 90/min
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A urine output of 30 mL/hr is significantly low and indicates possible renal impairment or inadequate perfusion to the kidneys, which are critical for postoperative recovery. In this situation, decreased urine output could lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, affecting the client's overall condition. The nurse should report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a normal finding in the early postoperative period and does not typically warrant immediate concern. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range and may be expected in a postoperative client due to the stress response. A temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in isolation postoperatively.
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