ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hours postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hours following surgery.
- B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hours.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hours.
- D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial in managing postoperative pain for the child. This helps control pain levels effectively, promoting comfort and aiding in the recovery process. Offering small amounts of clear liquids 6 hours following surgery may not be appropriate as the child may need time to recover from anesthesia. Giving cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hours is not indicated for postoperative care following appendicitis surgery. Applying a warm compress every 4 hours to the operative site may not be recommended as it can potentially interfere with the surgical wound healing process.
2. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for the first year postpartum.
- B. You should not use the diaphragm used before your pregnancy.
- C. Apply the transdermal birth control patch on your upper arm.
- D. Avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.
3. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Lie down after meals to reduce discomfort.
- B. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- C. Avoid eating spicy foods.
- D. Eat three large meals each day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid eating spicy foods.' Spicy foods can exacerbate symptoms of GERD by irritating the esophagus and causing discomfort. It is important for clients with GERD to avoid spicy foods to help manage their condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with GERD should not lie down after meals as this can worsen symptoms, limiting fluid intake to only 1 liter per day may not be appropriate for everyone, and eating three large meals each day can put pressure on the stomach and worsen GERD symptoms.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse use to monitor the client's therapeutic response to the medication?
- A. INR
- B. aPTT
- C. Platelet count
- D. Hemoglobin A1C
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic response of warfarin. It helps ensure that the client's clotting time is within the desired range to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding or clotting. Choice B, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy but rather for assessing heparin therapy. Choice C, Platelet count, assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, Hemoglobin A1C, is a test used to monitor long-term blood sugar control in diabetic patients and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the cause of late decelerations?
- A. Fetal head compression
- B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
- C. Umbilical cord compression
- D. Fetal hypoxia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, which results from inadequate blood flow to the placenta. This leads to reduced oxygen and nutrients reaching the fetus during contractions. Choice A, fetal head compression, does not typically cause late decelerations but can result in variable decelerations. Choice C, umbilical cord compression, usually leads to variable decelerations. Choice D, fetal hypoxia, is a broad term and not the direct cause of late decelerations, which are specifically linked to uteroplacental insufficiency.
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