Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Rice
• B. Barley soup
• C. Cornbread
• D. Potatoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Barley soup. Barley contains gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid barley-containing foods like barley soup. Choices A, C, and D are safe options for individuals with celiac disease as they do not contain gluten. Rice, cornbread, and potatoes are gluten-free and can be included in the client's diet.

2. A nurse is preparing to perform tracheostomy care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing.
• B. Suction the tracheostomy.
• C. Remove the inner cannula.
• D. Clean the stoma with sterile saline.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy should be performed first to clear the airway of secretions and ensure proper oxygenation before proceeding with other care. This helps maintain a patent airway and prevent complications such as aspiration. Applying a sterile dressing, removing the inner cannula, or cleaning the stoma can follow after ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning.

3. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Platelets
• C. aPTT
• D. INR

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. Monitoring the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is crucial when a client is receiving heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the clotting time and helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clot formation. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range ensures that the medication is working optimally. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, platelets, and INR are not direct indicators of heparin's effectiveness or therapeutic range.

5. Which medication is commonly prescribed for a patient with a history of heart failure?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Metoprolol
• C. Digoxin
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is the correct answer. It is a common diuretic used in patients with heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Metoprolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker often prescribed to manage heart failure symptoms by improving heart function. Digoxin (Choice C) is used in heart failure patients to help the heart beat stronger and with a more regular rhythm. Aspirin (Choice D) is not typically prescribed for heart failure but may be used in patients with heart disease for its antiplatelet effects.

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