Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who has an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Use latex gloves when administering the medication.
• B. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
• C. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.
• D. Administer the medication with a latex-free syringe.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This is crucial as it prevents direct contact of the medication with latex, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Choice A is incorrect as using latex gloves can still expose the client to latex. Choice B is not the best option since the administration route is not specified, and using a latex-free syringe alone may not be sufficient to prevent exposure. Choice D is not the most appropriate because the IV tubing and ports should also be latex-free to ensure complete avoidance of latex contact.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor. Which of the following findings requires further assessment by the nurse?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15
• B. Blood drainage on the initial dressing measuring 3 cm
• C. Report of dry mouth
• D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake could indicate diabetes insipidus, a complication following hypophysectomy. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst due to inadequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Options A, B, and C are all expected findings in the immediate postoperative period following a hypophysectomy. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness, blood drainage on the initial dressing is a common finding after surgery, and dry mouth can be a side effect of anesthesia and surgical procedures.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
• D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.

5. A client is receiving radiation therapy for cancer. Which of the following skin care instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Apply alcohol-free lotions to your skin to prevent dryness.
• B. Avoid exposing the irradiated area to direct sunlight.
• C. Cleanse the irradiated area with mild soap and water.
• D. Apply ice packs to the irradiated area to prevent swelling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid exposing the irradiated area to direct sunlight. Direct sunlight can further damage the skin during radiation therapy. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol-based lotions can irritate the skin further. Choice C is incorrect because mild soap and water can be drying to the skin. Choice D is incorrect because applying ice packs can cause additional skin damage during radiation therapy.

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