Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who has an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Use latex gloves when administering the medication.
• B. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
• C. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.
• D. Administer the medication with a latex-free syringe.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This is crucial as it prevents direct contact of the medication with latex, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Choice A is incorrect as using latex gloves can still expose the client to latex. Choice B is not the best option since the administration route is not specified, and using a latex-free syringe alone may not be sufficient to prevent exposure. Choice D is not the most appropriate because the IV tubing and ports should also be latex-free to ensure complete avoidance of latex contact.

2. A client receiving intermittent enteral feedings is being cared for by a nurse. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?

• A. Administer the feeding over 60 minutes.
• B. Position the client in a supine position during feedings.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• D. Flush the feeding tube with 60 mL of water before each feeding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration during enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent the reflux of feeding into the lungs. Administering the feeding over 60 minutes (Choice A) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Positioning the client in a supine position (Choice B) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Flushing the feeding tube with water (Choice D) is important for tube patency but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
• C. Wound drainage of 30 mL in 8 hours
• D. Warmth and redness in the calf

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Warmth and redness in the calf are indicative of a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication post-surgery that requires immediate attention. Reporting this finding promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a postoperative client and do not indicate a potentially life-threatening condition like DVT.

4. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about therapeutic techniques to use when leading a group on a mental health unit. Which of the following group facilitation techniques should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Share personal opinions to help influence the group's values.
• B. Measure the accomplishments of the group against a previous group.
• C. Yield in situations of conflicts to maintain group harmony.
• D. Use modeling to help the clients improve their interpersonal skills.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use modeling to help the clients improve their interpersonal skills.' Modeling is an effective therapeutic technique where the leader demonstrates appropriate behaviors for the group to learn from. This technique can help clients improve their interpersonal skills by observing and replicating positive behaviors. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Sharing personal opinions to influence the group's values may not be appropriate as it could hinder the group dynamics and individual autonomy. Comparing accomplishments against a previous group is not a recommended technique as each group is unique, and comparisons may not be beneficial. Yielding in conflicts to maintain group harmony may lead to unresolved issues and hinder the group's progress.

5. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

• A. Monitor urine output
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor serum creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

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