a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube which of the following actions should the nurs
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a mastectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid using deodorant until the incision heals. Using deodorant can lead to skin irritation, which should be prevented following a mastectomy. Choice B is incorrect because performing arm exercises should typically be delayed until recommended by the healthcare provider to prevent strain on the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as tight-fitting clothing can increase discomfort and hinder proper healing. Choice D is also incorrect because initiating arm exercises should be based on the healthcare provider's guidance and not a specific timeframe.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated, indicating a possible infection or inflammatory response, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client postoperative, so they do not require immediate reporting. Elevated temperature can be a sign of infection or other complications, making it a priority for reporting and further assessment.

4. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. In a patient experiencing respiratory distress, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the priority. Administering oxygen helps improve oxygen levels, which is crucial for the patient's well-being. Repositioning the patient, administering bronchodilators, or giving IV fluids are important interventions in certain situations, but when a patient is in respiratory distress, providing oxygen takes precedence over other actions.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.

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