a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube which of the following actions should the nurs
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.

2. A client receiving intermittent enteral feedings is being cared for by a nurse. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration during enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent the reflux of feeding into the lungs. Administering the feeding over 60 minutes (Choice A) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Positioning the client in a supine position (Choice B) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Flushing the feeding tube with water (Choice D) is important for tube patency but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration.

3. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance, making it a sensitive indicator. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of overall fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a late sign of fluid imbalance and may not be sensitive enough to detect subtle changes. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is relevant but may not directly reflect fluid balance as it can be influenced by various other factors.

4. Which lab value should be monitored in a patient on digoxin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor digoxin levels in a patient on digoxin. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, and monitoring its levels in the blood is crucial to ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice A) is important due to the potential of digoxin-induced hypokalemia, but the primary focus should be on monitoring digoxin levels. Monitoring calcium levels (Choice B) and sodium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to digoxin therapy and are not the primary lab values of concern when administering digoxin.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

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