Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Witness the waste of the controlled substance by another nurse
• B. Dispose of the controlled substance by yourself
• C. Leave the controlled substance in the client's room for later use
• D. Document the administration and sign off at the end of the shift

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse preparing to administer a controlled substance is to witness the waste of the controlled substance by another nurse. This practice is crucial to prevent misuse and ensure accurate documentation. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the controlled substance by oneself without proper witnessing is not in accordance with safety protocols. Choice C is incorrect as leaving a controlled substance unattended in a client's room poses risks of diversion or unauthorized access. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the administration and signing off at the end of the shift is important but does not specifically address the issue of witnessing the waste of a controlled substance, which is a critical step in ensuring proper handling and accountability.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid sitting in a chair for longer than 30 minutes.
• B. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
• C. I will bend at the hips to pick up items from the floor.
• D. I will avoid using a raised toilet seat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bending at the hips can dislocate the hip joint in clients who have had a total hip arthroplasty. This movement should be avoided to prevent complications post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements for a client who has had a total hip arthroplasty. Avoiding prolonged sitting, crossing legs, and using a raised toilet seat are all appropriate measures to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
• B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
• C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
• D. Client reports dyspnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

4. How should a healthcare professional educate a patient on the use of an incentive spirometer?

• A. Instruct the patient to take deep breaths
• B. Instruct the patient to cough forcefully
• C. Instruct the patient to blow into the spirometer
• D. Instruct the patient to use the spirometer every hour

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the patient to use the spirometer every hour is crucial for optimal lung expansion and to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications. This regular use helps to keep the lungs clear and maintain their capacity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because deep breathing, forceful coughing, and blowing into the spirometer do not specifically address the proper use of the incentive spirometer, which is essential for postoperative respiratory recovery.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should suspect that the client has developed an infection based on which of the following findings?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
• B. Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
• C. Heart rate of 92/min
• D. Drainage at the surgical site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F) is indicative of infection postoperatively. Fever is a common sign of infection, and temperatures above the normal range should raise suspicion. The other vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate) may be within an acceptable range, and some drainage at the surgical site can be expected postoperatively. However, the elevated temperature is a more specific indicator of a potential infection that requires immediate attention.

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