Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Platelets
• C. aPTT
• D. INR

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. Monitoring the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is crucial when a client is receiving heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the clotting time and helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clot formation. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range ensures that the medication is working optimally. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, platelets, and INR are not direct indicators of heparin's effectiveness or therapeutic range.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
• B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics.
• C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
• D. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying sequential compression devices is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours is contraindicated as it can dislodge a blood clot and increase the risk of embolism. Administering prophylactic antibiotics is not indicated for preventing DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest can contribute to venous stasis and increase the risk of developing DVT.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Headache.
• D. Urinary retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Hypertension
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

5. A patient is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the affected extremity every 2 hours.
• B. Encourage the patient to ambulate as soon as possible.
• C. Apply warm compresses to the affected extremity.
• D. Elevate the affected extremity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the affected extremity is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, thereby preventing further complications such as pulmonary embolism. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and lead to serious consequences. While ambulation is important, in DVT, early ambulation without elevation can potentially dislodge the clot. Warm compresses can increase blood flow to the area and worsen the condition by promoting clot dislodgement.

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