ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. You may experience a persistent dry cough.
- C. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
- D. You should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of captopril, an ACE inhibitor, and should be included in the teaching. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can increase potassium levels, so there is no need to further increase potassium intake. Choice D is incorrect because captopril does not interact with grapefruit.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Increased level of consciousness.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. In a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP), tachycardia is a common finding. This is due to the body's compensatory mechanisms in response to the increased pressure. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with increased ICP and may indicate a different issue. Increased level of consciousness (choice B) is unlikely with increased ICP, as it often leads to altered mental status. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not directly related to increased ICP and are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues.
3. What is the initial step when a patient is experiencing chest pain?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Provide pain relief
- D. Provide nitroglycerin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial step in managing chest pain. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels in the blood, which is crucial in cases of chest pain. Repositioning the patient, providing pain relief, or administering nitroglycerin may be necessary steps depending on the underlying cause, but administering oxygen takes precedence as it addresses the primary concern of oxygen supply to the body during chest pain.
4. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Semi-Fowler's position
- B. Trendelenburg position
- C. Prone position
- D. Supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Pallor
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which is paleness of the skin, is a common sign of anemia due to a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin levels. This results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to the paleness of the skin. Choice A, increased appetite, is not typically associated with anemia. Choice C, tachycardia (increased heart rate), can be present in anemia as the body compensates for decreased oxygenation. Choice D, hypertension (high blood pressure), is not a common finding in anemia; instead, low blood pressure may be observed due to decreased blood volume.
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