Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an immunization to a 6-month-old infant. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce pain at the injection site?

• A. Administer the immunization in the deltoid muscle
• B. Apply a cold compress to the injection site
• C. Apply pressure to the injection site for 5 minutes
• D. Administer a local anesthetic at the injection site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a local anesthetic at the injection site can help reduce pain during immunizations in infants. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Administering the immunization in the deltoid muscle may not provide pain relief. Applying a cold compress or pressure to the injection site is not as effective as using a local anesthetic to reduce pain.

2. What is the best intervention for a patient presenting with respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer bronchodilators
• C. Reposition the patient
• D. Provide humidified air

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most critical intervention for a patient in respiratory distress as it helps improve oxygenation levels. Oxygen therapy aims to increase oxygen saturation in the blood, providing relief and support during episodes of respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators may be beneficial in some cases, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation. Repositioning the patient may help optimize ventilation but does not directly address the primary need for increased oxygen. Providing humidified air can offer comfort but does not address the urgent need for improved oxygen levels in a patient experiencing respiratory distress.

3. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
• B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
• C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is an appropriate intervention for managing mania in a client with bipolar disorder. During a manic episode, individuals often have increased energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and may engage in high-risk behaviors. Encouraging regular rest periods can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation, which may assist in stabilizing mood. Choices A and B are not as effective in managing manic symptoms, as they do not directly address the client's need for rest and relaxation. Choice D is inappropriate because placing the client in seclusion can increase feelings of anxiety and agitation, worsening the manic episode.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving education from a nurse on preventing long-term complications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will keep my blood glucose levels within the target range.
• B. I will check my feet daily for any open sores or wounds.
• C. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
• D. I will consume foods that are high in fiber.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will check my feet daily for any open sores or wounds.' This statement shows an understanding of the importance of foot care in preventing complications like diabetic foot ulcers. Monitoring blood glucose levels (choice A) is crucial but not directly related to foot care. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important for overall health but does not specifically address preventing long-term complications of diabetes. Consuming foods high in fiber (choice D) is beneficial for managing blood sugar levels but does not directly address preventing foot complications.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. JVD.
• C. Crackles in the lungs.
• D. Hypotension.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: JVD. Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a common finding in right-sided heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to congestion and increased venous pressure, which is manifested as JVD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure. Crackles in the lungs (choice C) are indicative of pulmonary edema, often seen in left-sided heart failure. Hypotension (choice D) is not typically seen in right-sided heart failure, as it is more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration.

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