how should a nurse assess a patient for dehydration
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking for skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity and hydration status. When a healthcare professional gently pinches the skin on the back of the patient's hand or forearm, dehydration is indicated by the skin not snapping back immediately. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but is more indicative of cardiovascular status rather than dehydration specifically. Checking for dry mucous membranes (choice C) can be a sign of dehydration, but skin turgor is a more direct assessment. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is also essential but may not provide immediate feedback on hydration status as skin turgor does.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Raynaud's disease is a condition where the blood vessels narrow in response to cold or stress, leading to reduced blood flow to certain areas of the body, usually the fingers and toes. Stress management helps reduce triggers for Raynaud's disease by minimizing emotional stress, which can trigger vasospasms. Choice B is incorrect as maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, is recommended for individuals with Raynaud's disease to prevent triggering vasospasms. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not typically used to manage Raynaud's disease, as it can further constrict blood vessels. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not a first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.

3. A charge nurse is preparing to lead negotiations among nursing staff due to conflict about overtime requirements. Which of the following strategies should the nurse use to promote effective negotiation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In negotiating conflicts, it is crucial to attempt to understand both sides of the issue. This strategy helps the charge nurse gain insights into the perspectives and concerns of all parties involved, facilitating a more effective negotiation process. Choice A is not ideal as identifying solutions prior to negotiation may overlook important viewpoints or needs. Choice B is vague and does not provide a specific action plan for resolving the conflict. Choice D is incorrect as personalizing the conflict can lead to biased decision-making and hinder the negotiation process.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship. Which statement should the nurse make during this phase?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship, it is crucial to establish roles. This helps both the client and the nurse understand their responsibilities, boundaries, and expectations within the therapeutic process. Choice A is more focused on the working phase where strategies and interventions are discussed. Choice C is more suitable for the working phase where specific techniques are usually introduced. Choice D is also more relevant to the working phase as it involves discussing practical resources for implementation in daily life.

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