how should a nurse assess a patient for dehydration
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking for skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity and hydration status. When a healthcare professional gently pinches the skin on the back of the patient's hand or forearm, dehydration is indicated by the skin not snapping back immediately. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but is more indicative of cardiovascular status rather than dehydration specifically. Checking for dry mucous membranes (choice C) can be a sign of dehydration, but skin turgor is a more direct assessment. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is also essential but may not provide immediate feedback on hydration status as skin turgor does.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe hypertension and is receiving nitroprusside. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client receiving nitroprusside for severe hypertension is to limit light exposure to the IV infusion. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, and exposure to light can lead to degradation of the medication, reducing its effectiveness. Administering oxygen (Choice A) may be necessary for some clients but is not directly related to the administration of nitroprusside. Monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours (Choice B) is a general nursing intervention for clients with hypertension but does not specifically address the administration of nitroprusside. Attaching an inline filter to the IV tubing (Choice D) is not necessary to address the specific concern of light exposure related to nitroprusside administration.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

4. A client who has a positive stool culture for Clostridium difficile should be placed in which type of room for infection control purposes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is the appropriate infection control measure for C. difficile to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a face shield may be necessary for procedures that generate splashes or sprays, it is not the primary precaution for C. difficile. Negative pressure rooms are typically used for airborne infections, not for C. difficile. Using an alcohol-based hand rub is important for hand hygiene but is not specific to managing C. difficile infection.

5. A client with hypertension is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse on managing blood pressure at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.' Using a properly fitting cuff is essential for accurate blood pressure measurements. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of medication administration should be individualized and not specified in the question. Choice B is incorrect as checking blood pressure once a week may not provide sufficient monitoring for a client with hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly once blood pressure is normal can lead to rebound hypertension and complications.

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