which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect of radiation therapy due to damage to the salivary glands. It is essential for the nurse to monitor for this condition as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort. Fatigue (choice A) is a common side effect of radiation therapy, but in this case, dry mouth is a more specific side effect to monitor for. Hair loss (choice B) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Nausea (choice C) is also a common side effect of radiation therapy, but dry mouth is a more direct effect of the treatment that the nurse should focus on monitoring.

3. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has experienced a stroke and has aphasia. Which of the following communication strategies should the nurse use?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a picture board to facilitate communication. Aphasia can make it challenging for individuals to understand and use language. Using a picture board can help the client convey their needs and understand information more effectively. Speaking louder (A) may not be helpful as aphasia is not related to hearing loss. While speaking using simple sentences and gestures (B) can be beneficial, using a picture board (C) is a more concrete and visual method to support communication for individuals with aphasia. Having the client practice writing words down (D) may not be suitable if the client's expressive language skills are impaired due to aphasia.

5. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metformin should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to improve absorption and prevent gastrointestinal upset. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is not typically taken at bedtime. Choice C is unrelated to metformin therapy. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is actually better absorbed when taken with or after meals.

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