Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

2. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
• B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
• C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
• D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test typically takes about 10 minutes and evaluates the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Having a full bladder or fasting for 12 hours is not required for a nonstress test. Checking blood glucose levels is not part of the nonstress test procedure.

3. A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Blood glucose 90 mg/dL
• D. Urine ketones present

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration and inadequate glucose control in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not directly correlate with the condition of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, they are not the priority values to report in this scenario.

4. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

• A. Chlamydia
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Herpes simplex virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?

• A. Abdominal cramps
• B. Irritability
• C. Increased thirst
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is a common early manifestation of hypoglycemia. When blood glucose levels drop, the brain perceives this as a stressor, leading to irritability. Abdominal cramps (choice A) are not typically associated with hypoglycemia but can occur with other gastrointestinal issues. Increased thirst (choice C) is more indicative of hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia. Blurred vision (choice D) is a symptom more commonly associated with hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia.

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