ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily.
- B. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
- C. Reposition the client every 4 hours.
- D. Apply a moisture barrier ointment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.
2. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.
3. A client who has glaucoma and a new prescription for timolol eyedrops is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will place the eye drops in the center of my eye.
- B. I will place pressure on the corner of my eye after using the drops.
- C. I should expect my tears to turn red after using the drops.
- D. I should expect the drops to appear cloudy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because placing pressure on the corner of the eye after using the drops helps in better absorption. Option A is incorrect because eye drops should be placed in the conjunctival sac, not the center of the eye. Option C is incorrect because tears turning red is not an expected outcome of using timolol eyedrops. Option D is incorrect because timolol eyedrops should not appear cloudy.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?
- A. Bilirubin.
- B. Albumin.
- C. Ammonia.
- D. Prothrombin time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Atenolol
- C. Naltrexone
- D. Methadone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct choice for managing acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms due to its effectiveness in controlling agitation and tremors associated with this condition. Atenolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker mainly used for hypertension and angina, not for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Naltrexone (Choice C) is used for alcohol dependence treatment by reducing cravings and the rewarding effects of alcohol, but it is not typically used in acute withdrawal situations. Methadone (Choice D) is an opioid agonist mainly used for opioid detoxification and maintenance therapy, not for alcohol withdrawal.
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