Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
• B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

2. The nurse is performing triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration on the left thumb due to a cut from a rusty metal can
• B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time
• C. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain
• D. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.

3. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation and is in active labor. The nurse recognizes late decelerations on the fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply oxygen at 10 L/min via face mask
• B. Position the client on their side
• C. Call for a Cesarean delivery
• D. Administer oxytocin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, and the priority nursing action is to improve placental perfusion. Positioning the client on their side, particularly the left side, can enhance blood flow to the placenta and fetus by reducing pressure on the vena cava and increasing cardiac output. Applying oxygen, although helpful, is not the initial priority in this situation. Calling for a Cesarean delivery is not warranted unless other interventions fail to correct the late decelerations. Administering oxytocin can worsen the condition by increasing uterine contractions, exacerbating fetal distress.

4. What is the first step in preparing a blood transfusion?

• A. Administer the blood via IV push
• B. Verify the client's blood type before starting the transfusion
• C. Warm the blood to body temperature before administration
• D. Administer diuretics to prevent fluid overload

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in preparing a blood transfusion is to verify the client's blood type before starting the transfusion. This step is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. Administering the blood via IV push (Choice A) is incorrect as it skips the essential step of verifying the blood type. Warming the blood to body temperature (Choice C) is important but comes after verifying the blood type. Administering diuretics (Choice D) is not part of the preparation process for a blood transfusion.

5. When managing a physically assaultive client, the nurse's INITIAL priority is to

• A. Restrict the client to the room
• B. Place the client under one-to-one supervision
• C. Restore the client's self-control and prevent further loss of control
• D. Clear the immediate area of other clients to prevent harm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with a physically assaultive client, the initial priority is to focus on restoring the client's self-control and preventing further escalation. Restricting the client to the room (choice A) may escalate the situation and is not the initial priority. Placing the client under one-to-one supervision (choice B) is important but comes after ensuring the client's self-control. Clearing the immediate area of other clients (choice D) is essential for safety but is not the initial priority when compared to restoring the client's self-control.

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