Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
• B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

3. A client undergoing chemotherapy for cancer is being taught about potential adverse effects of the treatment. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid drinking water before meals
• B. I might experience hair loss during treatment
• C. I might experience an increase in appetite
• D. I should expect my appetite to increase

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hair loss is a common adverse effect of chemotherapy. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding drinking water before meals, experiencing an increase in appetite, or expecting appetite to increase are not related to the potential adverse effects of chemotherapy.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis via an AV fistula. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Avoid taking blood pressures on the arm with the AV fistula.
• B. Check the fistula site daily for pallor.
• C. Place a warm compress over the fistula site every 4 hours.
• D. Keep the client's arm elevated on two pillows.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to avoid taking blood pressures on the arm with the AV fistula. This is crucial to prevent complications such as damage to the fistula. Checking the fistula site for pallor is not as important as avoiding blood pressures on the affected arm. Placing warm compresses over the fistula site is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Keeping the client's arm elevated on two pillows is not necessary for the care of an AV fistula.

5. A client has a history of oliguria, hypertension, and peripheral edema. Current lab values are: BUN - 25, K+ - 4.0 mEq/L. Which nutrient should be restricted in the client's diet?

• A. Protein
• B. Fats
• C. Carbohydrates
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with oliguria, hypertension, and peripheral edema, protein should be restricted in the diet to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Excessive protein intake can lead to increased BUN levels, which can further stress the kidneys. Restricting protein can help prevent further kidney damage. Fats, carbohydrates, and magnesium do not directly impact kidney function in the same way as protein does, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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