Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
• B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hypertensive crisis?

• A. Administer antihypertensive medications and monitor blood pressure
• B. Provide a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction
• C. Administer diuretics and provide oxygen therapy
• D. Provide IV fluids and monitor for kidney failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis, the immediate goal is to lower blood pressure to prevent organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications helps achieve this goal efficiently. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and adjust medication as needed. Providing a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction (Choice B) can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Diuretics and oxygen therapy (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for hypertensive crisis, as the priority is rapid blood pressure reduction. Providing IV fluids and monitoring for kidney failure (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing hypertensive crisis; the focus is on blood pressure control and organ protection.

3. What is the priority for a client with dehydration?

• A. Administer antiemetics to prevent nausea
• B. Monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances
• C. Administer oral rehydration solutions
• D. Administer intravenous fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority for a client with dehydration is to monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances. Dehydration can lead to electrolyte disturbances, which can have serious consequences. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the root cause of dehydration. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial, but monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial in managing dehydration. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is important in severe cases of dehydration, but monitoring electrolytes should come first to assess the extent of the imbalance and guide fluid replacement therapy effectively.

4. What are the key signs of hyperglycemia?

• A. Increased thirst and frequent urination
• B. Decreased appetite and low blood pressure
• C. Weight loss and nausea
• D. Increased sweating and confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased thirst and frequent urination. These are classic signs of hyperglycemia, indicating elevated blood sugar levels. Choice B is incorrect as hyperglycemia usually presents with increased appetite rather than decreased appetite and low blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as weight loss is more commonly associated with uncontrolled diabetes rather than hyperglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as increased sweating and confusion are not typical signs of hyperglycemia.

5. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

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