Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
• B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

2. What is the appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
• D. Administer oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock is to administer IV fluids. In hypovolemic shock, there is a significant loss of circulating blood volume leading to inadequate perfusion to tissues. Administering IV fluids is crucial to restore blood volume and improve tissue perfusion. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but not the primary intervention in hypovolemic shock. Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position (choice C) can worsen outcomes by increasing intracranial pressure and is no longer recommended. Administering oxygen (choice D) is beneficial for many conditions but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate circulating blood volume in hypovolemic shock.

3. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has dumping syndrome about measures to reduce manifestations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Drink plenty of fluids after meals
• B. Increase sugar intake
• C. Eat smaller, more frequent meals
• D. Avoid foods high in sugar content

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in teaching a client with dumping syndrome is to 'Avoid foods high in sugar content.' Dumping syndrome occurs when high-sugar foods move too quickly into the small intestine, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and bloating. By avoiding foods high in sugar content, the client can reduce these symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Drinking plenty of fluids after meals may exacerbate symptoms by speeding up the movement of food through the digestive system. Increasing sugar intake would worsen dumping syndrome symptoms. While eating smaller, more frequent meals is a good strategy, the key emphasis should be on avoiding high-sugar foods.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a client who is obese. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Use the Z-track method to administer the medication.
• B. Use a 1.5-inch needle to administer the medication.
• C. Use the deltoid muscle for the injection.
• D. Administer the injection at a 90° angle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Z-track method should be used to administer IM injections in obese clients to prevent medication from leaking into subcutaneous tissue. Using a longer needle (1.5 inches) ensures that the medication reaches the muscle mass adequately. Choice C is incorrect because the deltoid muscle is not ideal for IM injections in obese clients due to inadequate muscle mass. Administering the injection at a 90° angle (perpendicular to the skin) is recommended for IM injections to ensure proper delivery into the muscle.

5. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to bear down
• B. Apply the external fetal monitor
• C. Provide the client with fluids
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.

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