a nurse is receiving change of shift report for a group of clients which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first
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ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and new onset confusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Increasing the client's oxygen flow rate should be the nurse's first action. Hypoxia is a common complication of pneumonia and can lead to confusion. Providing adequate oxygenation is essential in addressing hypoxia and improving the client's condition.\nOption B: Obtaining vital signs is important but addressing hypoxia takes precedence in the setting of new onset confusion.\nOption C: Administering an antibiotic is important for treating pneumonia but addressing hypoxia and confusion is the priority.\nOption D: Notifying the provider may be necessary but addressing the immediate physiological need of oxygenation should come first.

3. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing fatigue. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's fatigue?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention to manage fatigue in a client receiving chemotherapy is to encourage the client to take short naps during the day. Fatigue is a common side effect of chemotherapy, and allowing the client to rest can help combat this symptom. Instructing the client to remain on bedrest (Choice B) is not recommended as it may lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Providing a high-calorie diet (Choice C) may be beneficial for overall nutrition but does not directly address fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase activity levels (Choice D) may exacerbate fatigue instead of alleviating it.

4. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a tracheostomy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Monitoring airway patency and providing humidified oxygen is crucial in managing a patient with a tracheostomy to ensure proper breathing and oxygenation. Ensuring the airway is clear and providing oxygen support are immediate priorities. Providing education on tracheostomy care (Choice B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate priority. Suctioning airway secretions and changing tracheostomy ties (Choice C) are tasks that may be necessary but do not address the primary concern of maintaining airway patency. Providing a high-protein diet and ensuring fluid restriction (Choice D) are unrelated to the immediate management of a tracheostomy.

5. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

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