Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Limit fluid intake
• B. Increase potassium intake
• C. Provide a high-protein diet
• D. Administer IV antibiotics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Limiting fluid intake is essential in managing patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen kidney function. Increasing potassium intake is not recommended as patients with kidney disease often need to limit potassium. Providing a high-protein diet may put extra strain on the kidneys, so it is not ideal. Administering IV antibiotics is not a standard treatment for chronic kidney disease.

2. A client has a nasogastric tube and is receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Administer a bolus feeding over 10 minutes.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water before feedings.
• D. Position the client on the left side during feedings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding contents. Administering a bolus feeding over 10 minutes (choice A) may not prevent aspiration as effectively as elevating the head of the bed. Flushing the tube with sterile water before feedings (choice C) is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (choice D) is not the recommended action to prevent aspiration; elevating the head of the bed is more effective.

3. A client is being taught about patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which statement should be included in the teaching?

• A. The PCA will deliver a double dose of medication when you push the button twice.
• B. Continuous PCA infusion is designed to allow fluctuating plasma medication levels.
• C. You should push the button before physical activity to allow maximum pain control.
• D. You can adjust the amount of pain medication you receive by pushing on the keypad.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about PCA is that the client can adjust the amount of pain medication they receive by pushing on the keypad. This empowers the client to control their pain management effectively. Choice A is incorrect because PCA systems are programmed to prevent double dosing when the button is pressed multiple times in quick succession. Choice B is incorrect as continuous PCA infusion aims to maintain a steady plasma medication level. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary to push the button before physical activity to ensure maximum pain control; the client should use the PCA as needed for pain relief.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.
• B. I should take this medication with food.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I should stop taking this medication if I develop a headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This statement indicates that the client understands the potential side effect associated with the medication. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is typically taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because a headache is not a common reason to stop taking lisinopril.

5. A client is experiencing mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Feelings of dread
• B. Heightened perceptual field
• C. Rapid speech
• D. Purposeless activity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients experiencing mild anxiety, a heightened perceptual field is a common finding. This means that the individual may be more alert and observant of their surroundings, sometimes to the point of being hyper-aware. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to be associated with mild anxiety. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more commonly seen in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice C) may be observed in some cases of anxiety, but it is not a specific hallmark of mild anxiety. Purposeless activity (Choice D) is more indicative of severe anxiety or other mental health conditions.

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