ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet
1. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Increased skin turgor
- C. Dark-colored urine
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.
2. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent respiratory complications?
- A. Instruct the client to exhale into an incentive spirometer
- B. Reposition the client every 8 hours
- C. Assist the client with early ambulation
- D. Maintain the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assisting the client with early ambulation is crucial in preventing respiratory complications after abdominal surgery. Early ambulation helps to prevent conditions like atelectasis and pneumonia by promoting lung expansion and preventing pooling of respiratory secretions. It also aids in improving circulation, reducing the risk of deep vein thrombosis, and enhancing overall recovery. Instructing the client to exhale into an incentive spirometer (Choice A) is beneficial for lung expansion but is more focused on respiratory therapy rather than preventing complications. Repositioning the client every 8 hours (Choice B) is important for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing respiratory complications. Maintaining the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours (Choice D) can lead to complications such as atelectasis, pneumonia, and deep vein thrombosis due to decreased lung expansion and mobility.
3. A client has tuberculosis, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following isolation precautions should the nurse implement?
- A. Protective environment
- B. Contact
- C. Airborne
- D. Droplet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Airborne. Tuberculosis is transmitted through the air, making it an airborne disease. Airborne precautions are crucial to prevent the spread of tuberculosis to others. These precautions include placing the client in a negative pressure room, wearing an N95 respirator mask, and ensuring proper ventilation to minimize the risk of transmission to healthcare workers and other clients. Choice A, Protective environment, is used for clients with compromised immune systems. Choice B, Contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice D, Droplet precautions, are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, like influenza or pertussis.
4. A client has a tracheostomy and requires suctioning. Which of the following actions should be taken?
- A. Hyperoxygenate the client before suctioning
- B. Insert the catheter while exhalation
- C. Apply suction after inserting the catheter
- D. Limit suctioning to no more than 15 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperoxygenating the client before suctioning is crucial to prevent hypoxia during the procedure. By using a manual resuscitation bag with 100% oxygen, the nurse should provide several breaths to the client to ensure sufficient oxygenation before starting suctioning. This approach helps maintain oxygen levels and decreases the risk of hypoxia, which may arise when suctioning interrupts the normal respiratory process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because inserting the catheter during exhalation, applying suction while inserting the catheter, and limiting suctioning to 15 seconds do not address the priority of hyperoxygenating the client to prevent hypoxia.
5. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of foods high in vitamin D.
- B. I should decrease my intake of foods high in calcium.
- C. I should increase my intake of foods high in phosphorus.
- D. I should decrease my intake of foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Increasing intake of foods high in vitamin D is beneficial for improving calcium absorption and managing osteoporosis. Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium, which is essential for bone health and can aid in managing osteoporosis effectively. Choice B is incorrect because reducing calcium intake would be counterproductive for a client with osteoporosis, as calcium is crucial for bone strength. Choice C is incorrect as phosphorus, while important for bone health, does not directly impact osteoporosis management as much as vitamin D and calcium. Choice D is incorrect as potassium is not directly linked to osteoporosis management, and reducing its intake is not typically part of dietary recommendations for osteoporosis.
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