ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet
1. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Increased skin turgor
- C. Dark-colored urine
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.
2. When teaching a client with a new diagnosis of heart failure about dietary management, which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- B. Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. Increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the intake of sodium-rich foods. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing heart failure as it helps to reduce fluid retention and alleviate symptoms. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup in the body, worsening heart failure. Therefore, advising the client to decrease sodium-rich foods is essential for their overall health and management of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of sodium-rich foods (Choice A) would worsen fluid retention and heart failure symptoms. Avoiding foods that contain lactose (Choice C) is not directly related to heart failure management through sodium restriction. Increasing intake of dairy products (Choice D) may not be suitable for all heart failure patients, especially if they need to limit saturated fats or cholesterol in their diet.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle.
- B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.
4. A client has a stage 1 pressure ulcer on the right heel. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Apply a heat lamp to the area for 20 minutes each day.
- B. Change the dressing on the heel every 12 hours.
- C. Apply a transparent dressing over the heel.
- D. Use a water pressure mattress.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Applying a transparent dressing over the heel is beneficial as it can protect the ulcer from friction and shear, and allow for continuous observation of the wound. This intervention promotes healing and prevents further damage to the skin. Choice A is incorrect because applying heat can increase the risk of tissue damage and should be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as changing the dressing every 12 hours may disrupt the wound healing process and is not necessary for a stage 1 pressure ulcer. Choice D is incorrect because using a water pressure mattress is not a specific intervention for a stage 1 pressure ulcer on the heel.
5. A client receives discharge teaching on a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Increase your intake of salt.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction that should be included when a client receives discharge teaching on a new prescription for lisinopril is to 'Avoid foods high in potassium.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion. Therefore, clients taking lisinopril should be advised to avoid foods high in potassium to prevent potential complications associated with elevated potassium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking lisinopril with food, increasing salt intake, or taking the medication at bedtime are not specific instructions related to lisinopril therapy and may not be beneficial or necessary for the client's condition.
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