Nursing Elites

1. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dark-colored urine
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should avoid foods that contain carbohydrates.
• B. You should decrease your intake of high-fiber foods.
• C. You should increase your intake of high-protein foods.
• D. You should monitor your carbohydrate intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'You should monitor your carbohydrate intake.' Monitoring carbohydrate intake is essential for managing blood glucose levels in clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. By monitoring carbohydrate intake, individuals can make informed decisions about their dietary choices and better control their blood sugar levels. Avoiding foods that contain carbohydrates (choice A) is not advisable as carbohydrates are an essential nutrient that can be consumed in moderation. Decreasing intake of high-fiber foods (choice B) is not recommended as fiber is beneficial for glycemic control and overall health. Increasing intake of high-protein foods (choice C) is not the primary focus of dietary management for type 2 diabetes; while protein is important, it is more crucial to monitor carbohydrate intake for effective blood sugar management.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of hyperkalemia and is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider on dietary management. Which of the following statements should the healthcare provider include in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by excess potassium in the blood. To manage hyperkalemia effectively, it is crucial to reduce the intake of potassium-rich foods. This helps in lowering the overall potassium levels in the body and prevents complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Avoiding foods that contain lactose (Choice C) is not directly related to managing hyperkalemia. Increasing the intake of dairy products (Choice D) is not recommended as they can be a significant source of dietary potassium.

4. What action should the healthcare provider take for a patient with a chest tube?

• A. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
• B. Keep the drainage system below the level of the patient's chest.
• C. Clamp the chest tube when ambulating the patient.
• D. Ensure the water seal chamber is filled to the prescribed level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring the water seal chamber is filled to the prescribed level is essential for the chest tube's effective functioning. This maintains the integrity of the system, prevents air from entering the pleural space, and facilitates proper drainage. Stripping the drainage tubing, keeping the drainage system below the chest level, or clamping the chest tube during ambulation are not recommended practices and can lead to complications.

5. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?

• A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
• B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Anisocoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.

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