Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intradermal injection. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

• A. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• B. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
• C. Use a 1-inch needle.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering an intradermal injection, a tuberculin syringe is the appropriate choice due to its small size and precise measurement markings, which are essential for accurately delivering the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. Using a 1-inch needle (choice C) is more common for subcutaneous injections, while inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (choice B) is typical for intramuscular injections. Aspirating before injecting (choice D) is not necessary for intradermal injections, as the goal is to deliver the medication into the dermis rather than a blood vessel.

2. A healthcare provider is planning to administer medications to a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water.
• B. Administer medications through a secondary infusion.
• C. Mix medications with the enteral feeding.
• D. Flush the NG tube with 30 mL of water before and after administering medications.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flushing the NG tube with water before and after administering medications is essential to prevent clogging of the tube and ensure proper delivery of medication. This practice helps maintain tube patency and decreases the risk of obstruction, which could compromise the client's treatment and nutrition. By flushing the tube, the healthcare provider ensures that the medication is completely delivered and that there are no residual drug particles left in the tube, which could lead to blockages or inconsistent dosing. Therefore, flushing the NG tube is a crucial step in the safe administration of medications to clients receiving enteral feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Dissolving medications in sterile water (Choice A) may not be suitable for all drugs, as some medications may require specific diluents. Administering medications through a secondary infusion (Choice B) is not the standard practice for enteral medication administration. Mixing medications with the enteral feeding (Choice C) can cause interactions between medications and the feeding formula, affecting their absorption and effectiveness.

3. A client with renal calculi is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because decreasing the intake of calcium-rich foods can help manage and prevent the formation of renal calculi. Excessive calcium intake can contribute to the formation of these stones, so reducing calcium-rich foods is a key dietary modification for individuals with renal calculi. Choice A is incorrect as increasing calcium-rich foods can exacerbate the condition. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can lead to more stone formation due to increased calcium excretion. Choice D is incorrect as potassium-rich foods do not directly contribute to the formation of renal calculi.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increase your intake of protein-rich foods.
• B. Decrease your intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
• C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, decreasing the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is essential as impaired kidney function can lead to difficulty in excreting phosphorus, causing an imbalance. This can result in bone and heart complications. Therefore, educating the client to reduce phosphorus intake is crucial for managing the disease and preventing further complications. Option A is incorrect because excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Option C is not directly related to the management of chronic kidney disease. Option D is also incorrect as potassium intake may need to be limited in certain stages of kidney disease.

5. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Tremors
• B. Urine retention
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.

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