Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intradermal injection. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

• A. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• B. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
• C. Use a 1-inch needle.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering an intradermal injection, a tuberculin syringe is the appropriate choice due to its small size and precise measurement markings, which are essential for accurately delivering the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. Using a 1-inch needle (choice C) is more common for subcutaneous injections, while inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (choice B) is typical for intramuscular injections. Aspirating before injecting (choice D) is not necessary for intradermal injections, as the goal is to deliver the medication into the dermis rather than a blood vessel.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of cirrhosis is receiving dietary management education from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reducing the intake of sodium-rich foods is beneficial for managing fluid retention and symptoms of cirrhosis. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid buildup in the body, worsening edema and ascites commonly associated with cirrhosis. Therefore, advising the client to decrease their intake of sodium-rich foods is crucial in the dietary management of cirrhosis. Option A is incorrect as increasing sodium intake would exacerbate fluid retention. Option C is irrelevant to cirrhosis management unless the client has lactose intolerance. Option D is incorrect as increasing dairy product intake may not be suitable for all patients with cirrhosis, especially if they have complications like hepatic encephalopathy.

3. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°
• B. Flush the tube with 50 mL of water every 2 hours
• C. Replace the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours
• D. Check the client's gastric residual every 8 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30° is the correct action to take when a client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. This position helps prevent aspiration of the enteral feedings into the lungs, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, elevating the head of the bed promotes proper digestion and absorption of the feedings by utilizing gravity to facilitate movement into the stomach and through the gastrointestinal tract. Flushing the tube with water every 2 hours (Choice B) is not necessary for continuous feedings and may disrupt the feeding schedule. Replacing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours (Choice C) is not the standard recommendation unless there are specific concerns or complications. Checking the client's gastric residual every 8 hours (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings.

4. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent respiratory complications?

• A. Instruct the client to exhale into an incentive spirometer
• B. Reposition the client every 8 hours
• C. Assist the client with early ambulation
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client with early ambulation is crucial in preventing respiratory complications after abdominal surgery. Early ambulation helps to prevent conditions like atelectasis and pneumonia by promoting lung expansion and preventing pooling of respiratory secretions. It also aids in improving circulation, reducing the risk of deep vein thrombosis, and enhancing overall recovery. Instructing the client to exhale into an incentive spirometer (Choice A) is beneficial for lung expansion but is more focused on respiratory therapy rather than preventing complications. Repositioning the client every 8 hours (Choice B) is important for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing respiratory complications. Maintaining the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours (Choice D) can lead to complications such as atelectasis, pneumonia, and deep vein thrombosis due to decreased lung expansion and mobility.

5. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

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