Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Low potassium
• D. Low magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have impaired ability to activate vitamin D, leading to decreased production of calcitriol. Calcitriol is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Therefore, hypocalcemia is a common finding in chronic kidney disease. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Low potassium and low magnesium are possible electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease, but they are not as directly related to the impaired activation of vitamin D as hypocalcemia.

2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of levetiracetam. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. It can cause weight loss
• B. Monitor for mood changes
• C. It is an over-the-counter medication
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Levetiracetam can cause mood changes and behavioral side effects, so clients should be monitored for these effects. Choice A is incorrect because levetiracetam is not typically associated with weight loss. Choice C is incorrect as levetiracetam is a prescription medication, not available over the counter. Choice D is incorrect as all medications, including levetiracetam, have potential side effects.

3. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

• A. Increased blood pressure
• B. Pulse deficit
• C. Normal heart rate
• D. Elevated oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

4. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

• A. Increase fluid intake
• B. Empty the bladder
• C. Avoid eating for 12 hours
• D. Take a sedative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.

5. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• B. Rheumatoid factor
• C. Antinuclear antibody
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

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