Nursing Elites

1. A home health nurse is providing teaching to a family of a client who has seizure manifestations as a result of an inoperable brain tumor. What intervention should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Administer antiseizure medications promptly.
• B. Use oral airway devices during seizures.
• C. Pad the side rails of the bed.
• D. Apply restraints during the seizure to prevent injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should include in the teaching is to pad the side rails of the bed. By padding the side rails, the nurse can help prevent injury if the patient experiences a seizure. Administering antiseizure medications promptly (Choice A) is typically the responsibility of a healthcare provider or according to a prescribed schedule. Using oral airway devices during seizures (Choice B) can pose risks and should be managed by healthcare professionals. Applying restraints during a seizure (Choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to further injury and complications.

2. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

• A. Glasgow scale score of 15
• B. Blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm
• C. Report of dry mouth
• D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

3. During a breast examination on a 24-year-old client, the nurse notes the following findings. Which finding is of most concern and should be reported to the provider?

• A. An irregularly shaped, nontender lump palpable in the right breast
• B. Tenderness present during menstruation
• C. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation
• D. The client reports breast tenderness before menstruation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An irregularly shaped, nontender lump is a concerning finding as it may indicate breast cancer. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further investigation. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning findings. Tenderness during menstruation is a common finding due to hormonal changes. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation are often benign findings like fibrocystic changes. Breast tenderness before menstruation is also a common occurrence related to hormonal fluctuations.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. The client reports feeling nauseated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer an antiemetic.
• B. Check the client’s bowel sounds.
• C. Slow the rate of the feeding.
• D. Place the client in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with a nasogastric tube reports feeling nauseated is to check the client's bowel sounds. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate for possible complications, such as a blockage or decreased gastric motility, that could be causing the nausea. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) should not be the first action without assessing the underlying cause of the nausea. Slowing the rate of the feeding (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority until further assessment is done. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not typically indicated for managing nausea in this situation.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lip-smacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

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