Nursing Elites

1. A home health nurse is providing teaching to a family of a client who has seizure manifestations as a result of an inoperable brain tumor. What intervention should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Administer antiseizure medications promptly.
• B. Use oral airway devices during seizures.
• C. Pad the side rails of the bed.
• D. Apply restraints during the seizure to prevent injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should include in the teaching is to pad the side rails of the bed. By padding the side rails, the nurse can help prevent injury if the patient experiences a seizure. Administering antiseizure medications promptly (Choice A) is typically the responsibility of a healthcare provider or according to a prescribed schedule. Using oral airway devices during seizures (Choice B) can pose risks and should be managed by healthcare professionals. Applying restraints during a seizure (Choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to further injury and complications.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Decreased appetite
• C. Fatigue
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which finding indicates this condition?

• A. Abnormal mouth movements
• B. Inability to stand without assistance
• C. Paralysis of the right arm
• D. Loss of appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abnormal mouth movements are a key sign of dysphagia, a condition commonly seen in stroke clients. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, which can manifest as abnormal movements of the mouth during eating or drinking. In stroke patients, dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration, where food or liquids enter the airway instead of the esophagus, leading to potential complications such as pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are not directly indicative of dysphagia. Inability to stand without assistance may indicate motor deficits, paralysis of the right arm suggests a neurological impairment, and loss of appetite can be a non-specific symptom in many conditions but does not specifically point to dysphagia.

4. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Apical pulse
• D. Urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Advanced age
• B. Urinary incontinence
• C. Regular skin assessments
• D. Adequate hydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.

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