a nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily but the client reports she has been taking extra dose
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine specific gravity of 1.035. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration as the kidneys conserve water in response to dehydration. Choice B, oliguria, refers to decreased urine output, which can be a sign of dehydration but is not specific to it. Choice C, increased urine concentration, is a general term and does not directly indicate dehydration. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 250 mg liquid suspension PO every 8 hr to an older adult client. The amount available is amoxicillin 50 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the amount of amoxicillin in mL needed per dose, we can use the formula: 50 mg/mL = 250 mg / X mL. Cross multiply to solve for X: 50X = 250. Divide both sides by 50 to find X, which equals 5 mL per dose. Therefore, the nurse should administer 5 mL of amoxicillin per dose. Choice B, 6 mL, is incorrect as it does not match the calculated result. Choice C, 4 mL, is incorrect as it is too low based on the calculation. Choice D, 7 mL, is incorrect as it is too high based on the calculation.

3. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice because it is a calcium channel blocker that helps relax the uterus and stop preterm labor. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce labor, not to stop preterm labor. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used to induce labor and ripen the cervix, not to stop preterm labor.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of oral candidiasis after taking tetracycline for 7 days. The nurse should recognize that candidiasis is a manifestation of which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Candidiasis is a type of superinfection that can occur when antibiotics, like tetracycline, disrupt the normal flora, allowing overgrowth of fungi. Option A, allergic response, is incorrect because candidiasis is not typically an allergic reaction. Option C, renal toxicity, and option D, hepatotoxicity, are incorrect as they refer to adverse effects on the kidneys and liver, respectively, which are not directly related to the development of candidiasis.

5. A nurse is planning to administer epoetin alfa to a client who has chronic kidney failure. Which of the following data should the nurse plan to review prior to administration of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Epoetin alfa can increase blood pressure, especially in clients with chronic kidney failure. Monitoring blood pressure before administration is crucial to prevent hypertension. Reviewing temperature, blood glucose levels, or total protein levels is not directly related to the potential side effect of increased blood pressure associated with epoetin alfa.

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