ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)
- A. 20 mg
- B. 15 mg
- C. 10 mg
- D. 30 mg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the dosage per dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 = 10 kg. Then, multiply the weight by the dosage: 4 mg × 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since this total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, the nurse should administer 20 mg per dose. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice B (15 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight conversion and dosage calculation. Choice C (10 mg) is incorrect as it only considers the weight conversion but doesn't multiply it by the dosage. Choice D (30 mg) is incorrect as it miscalculates the dosage by not dividing the total daily dose into 2 equal parts.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a urinary tract infection and new prescriptions for phenazopyridine and ciprofloxacin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. If the phenazopyridine upsets my stomach, I can take it with meals.
- B. The phenazopyridine will relieve my discomfort, but the ciprofloxacin will get rid of the infection.
- C. I need to drink 2 liters of fluid per day while I am taking the ciprofloxacin.
- D. I should notify my provider immediately if my urine turns an orange color.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Phenazopyridine can turn the urine orange, which is a normal side effect and not a cause for alarm. The client's statement about notifying the provider immediately if their urine turns orange indicates a need for further teaching because it shows a misunderstanding of the medication's side effects. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate a good understanding of the prescribed medications and their effects, indicating the client has grasped the teaching provided on those aspects.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tamoxifen. The nurse should recognize that tamoxifen has which of the following therapeutic effects?
- A. Antiestrogenic
- B. Antimicrobial
- C. Androgenic
- D. Anti-inflammatory
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen medication used primarily in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer. It works by blocking the effects of estrogen in the breast tissue, thereby acting as an antiestrogenic agent. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choice B, antimicrobial, is incorrect as tamoxifen does not possess antimicrobial properties and is not used to treat infections. Choice C, androgenic, is incorrect as tamoxifen has antiestrogenic effects, not androgenic effects. Choice D, anti-inflammatory, is incorrect as tamoxifen's main therapeutic action is antiestrogenic rather than anti-inflammatory.
4. A nurse is administering subcutaneous heparin to a client who is at risk for deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication into the client's abdomen.
- B. Inject the medication into a muscle.
- C. Massage the site after administering the medication.
- D. Use a 22-gauge needle to administer the medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Heparin is best absorbed and less likely to cause hematomas when administered into subcutaneous tissue, specifically the abdomen, which is a common site for subcutaneous injections. Injecting heparin into a muscle (Choice B) is incorrect as it should be administered subcutaneously. Massaging the site after administering the medication (Choice C) is contraindicated as it can cause tissue damage or bruising. Using a 22-gauge needle (Choice D) is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of heparin; a smaller needle size such as 25-26 gauge is preferred for subcutaneous administration.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?
- A. Administer vitamin K
- B. Reduce the infusion rate
- C. Give the client a low-dose aspirin
- D. Request an INR
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.
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