ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg PO daily to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take hydrochlorothiazide as needed for edema.
- B. Check your weight once weekly.
- C. Take the hydrochlorothiazide on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the hydrochlorothiazide in the morning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning. This medication is usually advised to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide should be taken daily as prescribed, not as needed for edema. Option B is incorrect as monitoring weight weekly may not be specifically related to hydrochlorothiazide therapy. Option C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tamoxifen. The nurse should recognize that tamoxifen has which of the following therapeutic effects?
- A. Antiestrogenic
- B. Antimicrobial
- C. Androgenic
- D. Anti-inflammatory
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen medication used primarily in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer. It works by blocking the effects of estrogen in the breast tissue, thereby acting as an antiestrogenic agent. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choice B, antimicrobial, is incorrect as tamoxifen does not possess antimicrobial properties and is not used to treat infections. Choice C, androgenic, is incorrect as tamoxifen has antiestrogenic effects, not androgenic effects. Choice D, anti-inflammatory, is incorrect as tamoxifen's main therapeutic action is antiestrogenic rather than anti-inflammatory.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a urinary tract infection and new prescriptions for phenazopyridine and ciprofloxacin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. If the phenazopyridine upsets my stomach, I can take it with meals.
- B. The phenazopyridine will relieve my discomfort, but the ciprofloxacin will get rid of the infection.
- C. I need to drink 2 liters of fluid per day while I am taking the ciprofloxacin.
- D. I should notify my provider immediately if my urine turns an orange color.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Phenazopyridine can turn the urine orange, which is a normal side effect and not a cause for alarm. The client's statement about notifying the provider immediately if their urine turns orange indicates a need for further teaching because it shows a misunderstanding of the medication's side effects. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate a good understanding of the prescribed medications and their effects, indicating the client has grasped the teaching provided on those aspects.
4. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for amitriptyline to treat depression. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse plan to perform prior to starting the client on this medication?
- A. Hearing examination
- B. Glucose tolerance test
- C. Electrocardiogram
- D. Pulmonary function tests
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Electrocardiogram. Amitriptyline can cause cardiac arrhythmias, so an electrocardiogram is necessary before starting treatment. A hearing examination (choice A) is not required before initiating amitriptyline. A glucose tolerance test (choice B) is not indicated for starting this medication. Pulmonary function tests (choice D) are not necessary before initiating amitriptyline for depression.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?
- A. Administer vitamin K
- B. Reduce the infusion rate
- C. Give the client a low-dose aspirin
- D. Request an INR
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.
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