ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg PO daily to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take hydrochlorothiazide as needed for edema.
- B. Check your weight once weekly.
- C. Take the hydrochlorothiazide on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the hydrochlorothiazide in the morning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning. This medication is usually advised to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide should be taken daily as prescribed, not as needed for edema. Option B is incorrect as monitoring weight weekly may not be specifically related to hydrochlorothiazide therapy. Option C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
2. A client with gout is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue taking the medication for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Nausea
- B. Metallic taste
- C. Fever
- D. Drowsiness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Fever can indicate a serious hypersensitivity reaction to allopurinol, known as allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome, which can be severe and even life-threatening. Nausea and drowsiness are common side effects of allopurinol but not necessarily indications to discontinue the medication. Metallic taste is not typically associated with allopurinol use. Therefore, the nurse should emphasize to the client the importance of reporting any signs of fever promptly for further evaluation and management.
3. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- B. Oliguria
- C. Increased urine concentration
- D. Dry mucous membranes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine specific gravity of 1.035. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration as the kidneys conserve water in response to dehydration. Choice B, oliguria, refers to decreased urine output, which can be a sign of dehydration but is not specific to it. Choice C, increased urine concentration, is a general term and does not directly indicate dehydration. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Ecchymosis
- B. Jaundice
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypotension. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hypotension, especially after the first dose. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril is not typically associated with ecchymosis, jaundice, or hypokalemia as common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor the client for signs of hypotension.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should instruct the client that lactulose has which of the following therapeutic effects?
- A. Increases blood pressure
- B. Prevents esophageal bleeding
- C. Decreases heart rate
- D. Reduces ammonia levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduces ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce blood ammonia levels in clients with hepatic encephalopathy. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because lactulose does not have the therapeutic effect of increasing blood pressure, preventing esophageal bleeding, or decreasing heart rate.
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