Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who is to begin long-term oral prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Stop taking the medication if a rash occurs.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
• C. Schedule the medication on alternate days to decrease adverse effects.
• D. Treat shortness of breath with an extra dose of the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When initiating long-term oral prednisone therapy for asthma, it is essential to schedule the medication on alternate days. This approach helps reduce the risk of adverse effects commonly associated with corticosteroid use. Choice A is incorrect because abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choice B is incorrect as prednisone should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because using an extra dose of prednisone to treat shortness of breath is not appropriate and can lead to overdosing.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The healthcare professional should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Erythrocyte count
• B. Neutrophil count
• C. Lymphocyte count
• D. Thrombocyte count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Filgrastim is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils in patients with neutropenia. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in fighting off infections. Therefore, an increase in neutrophil count would indicate a therapeutic effect of filgrastim. The other options, such as erythrocyte count (red blood cells), lymphocyte count, and thrombocyte count (platelets), are not directly affected by filgrastim and would not indicate a therapeutic effect of this medication.

3. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ibuprofen
• B. Naproxen
• C. Aspirin
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hours. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth)

• A. 0.8 mL
• B. 0.9 mL
• C. 10.0 mL
• D. 98.0 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume of heparin to administer per dose, divide the prescribed dose (8,000 units) by the concentration of heparin available (10,000 units/mL). 8000 units / 10000 units/mL = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL per dose. Choice B, 0.9 mL, is incorrect as the correct calculation results in 0.8 mL. Choices C and D are significantly higher and incorrect, indicating an inaccurate calculation.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria
• C. Increased urine concentration
• D. Dry mucous membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine specific gravity of 1.035. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration as the kidneys conserve water in response to dehydration. Choice B, oliguria, refers to decreased urine output, which can be a sign of dehydration but is not specific to it. Choice C, increased urine concentration, is a general term and does not directly indicate dehydration. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030.

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