a nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40mg daily but the client reports she has been taking extra doses
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration. In this case, a urine specific gravity of 1.035 suggests concentrated urine, indicating dehydration. Choices B, C, and D have values that are not within the normal range for urine specific gravity and do not indicate dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 444, 2000, or 1111.1 are not physiologically possible values and are therefore incorrect.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for digoxin 0.215 mg PO daily and furosemide 20 mg PO daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients taking digoxin and furosemide are at risk for hypokalemia. Eating potassium-rich foods can help maintain normal potassium levels.

3. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to check the client's apical pulse. Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and one of the early signs of digoxin toxicity is changes in the pulse rate. By checking the client's apical pulse, the nurse can assess if the digoxin level is too high. Encouraging the client to eat or administering an antiemetic may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. While informing the provider is important, assessing the client's condition through checking the apical pulse should be the immediate priority.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for chlorpromazine to treat schizophrenia. The client has a mask-like facial expression and is experiencing involuntary movements and tremors. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Amantadine. Amantadine is used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as mask-like facial expressions, involuntary movements, and tremors, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like chlorpromazine. Bupropion is an antidepressant and not indicated for treating these symptoms. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and anxiety disorders, not for extrapyramidal symptoms. Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine used for anxiety and allergic conditions, not for the side effects described in the client.

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