ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of oral candidiasis after taking tetracycline for 7 days. The nurse should recognize that candidiasis is a manifestation of which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Allergic response
- B. Superinfection
- C. Renal toxicity
- D. Hepatotoxicity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Candidiasis is a type of superinfection that can occur when antibiotics, like tetracycline, disrupt the normal flora, allowing overgrowth of fungi. Option A, allergic response, is incorrect because candidiasis is not typically an allergic reaction. Option C, renal toxicity, and option D, hepatotoxicity, are incorrect as they refer to adverse effects on the kidneys and liver, respectively, which are not directly related to the development of candidiasis.
2. A nurse is planning to administer epoetin alfa to a client who has chronic kidney failure. Which of the following data should the nurse plan to review prior to administration of this medication?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Temperature
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Total protein levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Epoetin alfa can increase blood pressure, especially in clients with chronic kidney failure. Monitoring blood pressure before administration is crucial to prevent hypertension. Reviewing temperature, blood glucose levels, or total protein levels is not directly related to the potential side effect of increased blood pressure associated with epoetin alfa.
3. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Ibuprofen
- B. Naproxen
- C. Aspirin
- D. Acetaminophen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.
4. A nurse is planning to administer chlorothiazide 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally and administered twice daily for a toddler who weighs 28.6 lb. The amount available is chlorothiazide oral suspension 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth)
- A. 2.6 mL
- B. 2.63 mL
- C. 2.7 mL
- D. 2.2 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To find the dose per administration, first convert the toddler's weight to kg: 28.6 lb ÷ 2.2 = 13 kg. Then calculate the total daily dose: 20 mg/kg × 13 kg = 260 mg/day. Since it is divided into two doses, each dose is 130 mg. The concentration of the oral suspension is 250 mg/5 mL = 50 mg/mL. Therefore, to find the volume needed per dose, divide the dose by the concentration: 130 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 2.6 mL per dose. Hence, the nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the dosage of chlorothiazide needed per dose based on the toddler's weight and the concentration of the oral suspension.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Ecchymosis
- B. Jaundice
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypotension. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hypotension, especially after the first dose. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril is not typically associated with ecchymosis, jaundice, or hypokalemia as common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor the client for signs of hypotension.
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