Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about caring for a client who has a prescription for gemfibrozil. The nurse should instruct the newly licensed nurse to monitor which of the following laboratory tests?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Electrolyte levels
• C. Thyroid function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Liver function. Gemfibrozil can lead to hepatotoxicity, making it crucial to monitor liver function tests. Monitoring platelet count (choice A) is not specifically indicated for gemfibrozil. Electrolyte levels (choice B) and thyroid function (choice C) are not directly affected by gemfibrozil, so they are not the primary laboratory tests to monitor in this case.

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ibuprofen
• B. Naproxen
• C. Aspirin
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for ergotamine. The nurse should recognize that ergotamine is administered to treat which of the following conditions?

• A. Raynaud's phenomenon
• B. Migraine headaches
• C. Ulcerative colitis
• D. Anemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ergotamine is used to treat migraine headaches by constricting blood vessels in the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, Raynaud's phenomenon, is incorrect as ergotamine is not indicated for this condition. Choice C, Ulcerative colitis, is incorrect as ergotamine is not used to treat this gastrointestinal disorder. Choice D, Anemia, is incorrect as ergotamine is not prescribed for anemia.

4. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Urine specific gravity of 444
• C. Urine specific gravity of 2000
• D. Urine specific gravity of 1111.1

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration. In this case, a urine specific gravity of 1.035 suggests concentrated urine, indicating dehydration. Choices B, C, and D have values that are not within the normal range for urine specific gravity and do not indicate dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 444, 2000, or 1111.1 are not physiologically possible values and are therefore incorrect.

5. A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Phenazopyridine decreases adverse effects of ciprofloxacin.
• B. Combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin shortens the course of therapy.
• C. The use of phenazopyridine allows for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin.
• D. Ciprofloxacin treats the infection, and phenazopyridine treats pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.

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