Nursing Elites

1. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Oxytocin
• B. Nifedipine
• C. Dinoprostone
• D. Misoprostol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice because it is a calcium channel blocker that helps relax the uterus and stop preterm labor. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce labor, not to stop preterm labor. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used to induce labor and ripen the cervix, not to stop preterm labor.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for amphotericin B. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Constipation
• D. Nephrotoxicity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Amphotericin B is known for its nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Monitoring kidney function is crucial to detect any signs of nephrotoxicity early. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hyperkalemia, hypertension, and constipation are not typically associated with amphotericin B use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for nephrotoxicity.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a urinary tract infection and new prescriptions for phenazopyridine and ciprofloxacin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. If the phenazopyridine upsets my stomach, I can take it with meals.
• B. The phenazopyridine will relieve my discomfort, but the ciprofloxacin will get rid of the infection.
• C. I need to drink 2 liters of fluid per day while I am taking the ciprofloxacin.
• D. I should notify my provider immediately if my urine turns an orange color.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenazopyridine can turn the urine orange, which is a normal side effect and not a cause for alarm. The client's statement about notifying the provider immediately if their urine turns orange indicates a need for further teaching because it shows a misunderstanding of the medication's side effects. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate a good understanding of the prescribed medications and their effects, indicating the client has grasped the teaching provided on those aspects.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ibuprofen
• B. Naproxen
• C. Aspirin
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.

5. A client with gout is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue taking the medication for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Nausea
• B. Metallic taste
• C. Fever
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Fever can indicate a serious hypersensitivity reaction to allopurinol, known as allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome, which can be severe and even life-threatening. Nausea and drowsiness are common side effects of allopurinol but not necessarily indications to discontinue the medication. Metallic taste is not typically associated with allopurinol use. Therefore, the nurse should emphasize to the client the importance of reporting any signs of fever promptly for further evaluation and management.

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