ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The healthcare professional should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Erythrocyte count
- B. Neutrophil count
- C. Lymphocyte count
- D. Thrombocyte count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Filgrastim is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils in patients with neutropenia. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in fighting off infections. Therefore, an increase in neutrophil count would indicate a therapeutic effect of filgrastim. The other options, such as erythrocyte count (red blood cells), lymphocyte count, and thrombocyte count (platelets), are not directly affected by filgrastim and would not indicate a therapeutic effect of this medication.
2. A client with gout is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue taking the medication for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Nausea
- B. Metallic taste
- C. Fever
- D. Drowsiness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Fever can indicate a serious hypersensitivity reaction to allopurinol, known as allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome, which can be severe and even life-threatening. Nausea and drowsiness are common side effects of allopurinol but not necessarily indications to discontinue the medication. Metallic taste is not typically associated with allopurinol use. Therefore, the nurse should emphasize to the client the importance of reporting any signs of fever promptly for further evaluation and management.
3. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Oxytocin
- B. Nifedipine
- C. Dinoprostone
- D. Misoprostol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice because it is a calcium channel blocker that helps relax the uterus and stop preterm labor. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce labor, not to stop preterm labor. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used to induce labor and ripen the cervix, not to stop preterm labor.
4. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- B. Urine specific gravity of 444
- C. Urine specific gravity of 2000
- D. Urine specific gravity of 1111.1
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration. In this case, a urine specific gravity of 1.035 suggests concentrated urine, indicating dehydration. Choices B, C, and D have values that are not within the normal range for urine specific gravity and do not indicate dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 444, 2000, or 1111.1 are not physiologically possible values and are therefore incorrect.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about caring for a client who has a prescription for gemfibrozil. The nurse should instruct the newly licensed nurse to monitor which of the following laboratory tests?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Electrolyte levels
- C. Thyroid function
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Liver function. Gemfibrozil can lead to hepatotoxicity, making it crucial to monitor liver function tests. Monitoring platelet count (choice A) is not specifically indicated for gemfibrozil. Electrolyte levels (choice B) and thyroid function (choice C) are not directly affected by gemfibrozil, so they are not the primary laboratory tests to monitor in this case.
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