a nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous iv heparin infusion and has an aptt of 90 seconds which of the f
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.

2. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Zolpidem is known to cause dizziness, especially in older adults. This adverse effect can increase the risk of falls and injuries in the elderly population. Monitoring for dizziness is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choice A, Ecchymosis, is the development of bruising and is not a common adverse effect of zolpidem. Choices B and C, Decreased urine output and Increased blood pressure, are not typically associated with zolpidem use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices in this scenario.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 250 mg liquid suspension PO every 8 hr to an older adult client. The amount available is amoxicillin 50 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the amount of amoxicillin in mL needed per dose, we can use the formula: 50 mg/mL = 250 mg / X mL. Cross multiply to solve for X: 50X = 250. Divide both sides by 50 to find X, which equals 5 mL per dose. Therefore, the nurse should administer 5 mL of amoxicillin per dose. Choice B, 6 mL, is incorrect as it does not match the calculated result. Choice C, 4 mL, is incorrect as it is too low based on the calculation. Choice D, 7 mL, is incorrect as it is too high based on the calculation.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for digoxin 0.215 mg PO daily and furosemide 20 mg PO daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients taking digoxin and furosemide are at risk for hypokalemia. Eating potassium-rich foods can help maintain normal potassium levels.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg PO daily to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning. This medication is usually advised to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide should be taken daily as prescribed, not as needed for edema. Option B is incorrect as monitoring weight weekly may not be specifically related to hydrochlorothiazide therapy. Option C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

Similar Questions

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a urinary tract infection and new prescriptions for phenazopyridine and ciprofloxacin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to administer alendronate 40 mg PO for an older adult client who has Paget's disease of the bone. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's priority?
A healthcare professional is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. When assessing the client, the healthcare professional should recognize that which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
A nurse is preparing to administer iron dextran IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about administering morphine via IV bolus to a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses