ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A
1. When administering subcutaneous epinephrine for a client experiencing anaphylaxis, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hyperthermia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when administering subcutaneous epinephrine for anaphylaxis is tachycardia. Epinephrine stimulates adrenergic receptors, leading to an increased heart rate (tachycardia). Hypotension (Choice A) is less likely due to the vasoconstrictive effects of epinephrine. Hyperthermia (Choice B) and hypoglycemia (Choice C) are not commonly associated with epinephrine administration for anaphylaxis.
2. A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who is to begin long-term oral prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Stop taking the medication if a rash occurs.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
- C. Schedule the medication on alternate days to decrease adverse effects.
- D. Treat shortness of breath with an extra dose of the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When initiating long-term oral prednisone therapy for asthma, it is essential to schedule the medication on alternate days. This approach helps reduce the risk of adverse effects commonly associated with corticosteroid use. Choice A is incorrect because abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choice B is incorrect as prednisone should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because using an extra dose of prednisone to treat shortness of breath is not appropriate and can lead to overdosing.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Ecchymosis
- B. Jaundice
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypotension. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hypotension, especially after the first dose. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril is not typically associated with ecchymosis, jaundice, or hypokalemia as common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor the client for signs of hypotension.
4. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Ecchymosis
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Zolpidem is known to cause dizziness, especially in older adults. This adverse effect can increase the risk of falls and injuries in the elderly population. Monitoring for dizziness is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choice A, Ecchymosis, is the development of bruising and is not a common adverse effect of zolpidem. Choices B and C, Decreased urine output and Increased blood pressure, are not typically associated with zolpidem use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices in this scenario.
5. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Ibuprofen
- B. Naproxen
- C. Aspirin
- D. Acetaminophen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.
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