Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth)

• A. 0.5 mL
• B. 0.005 mL
• C. 0.05 mL
• D. 5 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, set up a proportion: 5 mg / 1 mL = 2.5 mg / X mL. Cross multiply to find X: 5 * X = 2.5 * 1, X = 2.5 / 5 = 0.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL. Choice B, 0.005 mL, is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculated result. Choice C, 0.05 mL, is incorrect as it is ten times the correct value. Choice D, 5 mL, is incorrect as it represents the total volume of the entire vial, not the amount needed for the specific dose.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should instruct the client that lactulose has which of the following therapeutic effects?

• A. Increases blood pressure
• B. Prevents esophageal bleeding
• C. Decreases heart rate
• D. Reduces ammonia levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduces ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce blood ammonia levels in clients with hepatic encephalopathy. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because lactulose does not have the therapeutic effect of increasing blood pressure, preventing esophageal bleeding, or decreasing heart rate.

3. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Urine specific gravity of 444
• C. Urine specific gravity of 2000
• D. Urine specific gravity of 1111.1

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration. In this case, a urine specific gravity of 1.035 suggests concentrated urine, indicating dehydration. Choices B, C, and D have values that are not within the normal range for urine specific gravity and do not indicate dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 444, 2000, or 1111.1 are not physiologically possible values and are therefore incorrect.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hours. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth)

• A. 0.8 mL
• B. 0.9 mL
• C. 10.0 mL
• D. 98.0 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume of heparin to administer per dose, divide the prescribed dose (8,000 units) by the concentration of heparin available (10,000 units/mL). 8000 units / 10000 units/mL = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL per dose. Choice B, 0.9 mL, is incorrect as the correct calculation results in 0.8 mL. Choices C and D are significantly higher and incorrect, indicating an inaccurate calculation.

5. A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Phenazopyridine decreases adverse effects of ciprofloxacin.
• B. Combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin shortens the course of therapy.
• C. The use of phenazopyridine allows for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin.
• D. Ciprofloxacin treats the infection, and phenazopyridine treats pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.

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