Nursing Elites

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ibuprofen
• B. Naproxen
• C. Aspirin
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.

2. A healthcare professional is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. When assessing the client, the healthcare professional should recognize that which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. History of diuretic use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering it to a client who already has hypotension could exacerbate this condition. Therefore, hypotension is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem. Incorrect Choices: B) Tachycardia is not a contraindication for administering diltiazem in atrial fibrillation as it is commonly used to control the heart rate. C) Decreased level of consciousness may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. D) History of diuretic use is not a contraindication if the client is not currently experiencing hypotension.

3. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria
• C. Increased urine concentration
• D. Dry mucous membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine specific gravity of 1.035. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration as the kidneys conserve water in response to dehydration. Choice B, oliguria, refers to decreased urine output, which can be a sign of dehydration but is not specific to it. Choice C, increased urine concentration, is a general term and does not directly indicate dehydration. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a group of new parents about medications. The nurse should include that aspirin is contraindicated for children who have a viral infection due to the risk of developing which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Reye's syndrome
• B. Visual disturbances
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Wilms' tumor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reye's syndrome. Aspirin use in children with viral infections has been associated with Reye's syndrome, a serious condition that causes swelling in the liver and brain. Visual disturbances (choice B) are not typically associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections. Diabetes mellitus (choice C) and Wilms' tumor (choice D) are not adverse effects of aspirin use in this context.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bleeding
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bleeding. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Therefore, one of the main adverse effects of clopidogrel is an increased risk of bleeding. Insomnia (Choice A), hypotension (Choice B), and constipation (Choice D) are not commonly associated with clopidogrel use. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, is crucial when a client is taking clopidogrel.

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