a nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease and reports a headache which of the following medications should the nurse plan to adminis
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.

2. A client with a seizure disorder has a new prescription for valproic acid. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse plan to monitor? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the Above.' Valproic acid can impact liver function and coagulation. Monitoring the Prothrombin Time (PTT), Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST), and Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) is crucial. PTT is monitored to assess coagulation status, while AST and ALT are liver enzymes that indicate liver function. Monitoring these values helps detect any potential adverse effects of valproic acid on the liver and blood clotting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these laboratory values plays a critical role in evaluating the client's response to valproic acid therapy and detecting associated complications.

3. A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for digoxin 0.215 mg PO daily and furosemide 20 mg PO daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients taking digoxin and furosemide are at risk for hypokalemia. Eating potassium-rich foods can help maintain normal potassium levels.

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