Nursing Elites

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ibuprofen
• B. Naproxen
• C. Aspirin
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.

2. A healthcare professional is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. When assessing the client, the healthcare professional should recognize that which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. History of diuretic use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering it to a client who already has hypotension could exacerbate this condition. Therefore, hypotension is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem. Incorrect Choices: B) Tachycardia is not a contraindication for administering diltiazem in atrial fibrillation as it is commonly used to control the heart rate. C) Decreased level of consciousness may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. D) History of diuretic use is not a contraindication if the client is not currently experiencing hypotension.

3. A client with gout is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue taking the medication for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Nausea
• B. Metallic taste
• C. Fever
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Fever can indicate a serious hypersensitivity reaction to allopurinol, known as allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome, which can be severe and even life-threatening. Nausea and drowsiness are common side effects of allopurinol but not necessarily indications to discontinue the medication. Metallic taste is not typically associated with allopurinol use. Therefore, the nurse should emphasize to the client the importance of reporting any signs of fever promptly for further evaluation and management.

4. When administering subcutaneous epinephrine for a client experiencing anaphylaxis, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hyperthermia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when administering subcutaneous epinephrine for anaphylaxis is tachycardia. Epinephrine stimulates adrenergic receptors, leading to an increased heart rate (tachycardia). Hypotension (Choice A) is less likely due to the vasoconstrictive effects of epinephrine. Hyperthermia (Choice B) and hypoglycemia (Choice C) are not commonly associated with epinephrine administration for anaphylaxis.

5. A client with chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis is prescribed epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Reduces blood pressure
• B. Inhibits clotting of fistula
• C. Promotes RBC production
• D. Stimulates growth of neutrophils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney failure. This helps in increasing the hemoglobin levels and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as epoetin alfa does not have direct effects on reducing blood pressure, inhibiting clotting of the fistula, or stimulating the growth of neutrophils.

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