Nursing Elites

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ibuprofen
• B. Naproxen
• C. Aspirin
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for chlorothiazide to treat hypertension. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Thrombophlebitis
• B. Hyperactive reflexes
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. Chlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, which can cause muscle weakness. Thrombophlebitis (choice A) is not typically associated with chlorothiazide use. Hyperactive reflexes (choice B) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not commonly linked to this medication. Therefore, monitoring for muscle weakness is crucial when a client is prescribed chlorothiazide.

3. A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Phenazopyridine decreases adverse effects of ciprofloxacin.
• B. Combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin shortens the course of therapy.
• C. The use of phenazopyridine allows for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin.
• D. Ciprofloxacin treats the infection, and phenazopyridine treats pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about metoclopramide. The nurse should include in the teaching that which of the following conditions is a contraindication to this medication?

• A. Hyperthyroidism
• B. Intestinal obstruction
• C. Glaucoma
• D. Low blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intestinal obstruction. Metoclopramide is contraindicated in clients with intestinal obstruction due to its prokinetic effects, which could exacerbate the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because metoclopramide is not contraindicated in hyperthyroidism, glaucoma, or low blood pressure. Hyperthyroidism, glaucoma, and low blood pressure are not specific contraindications for metoclopramide use, and this medication is commonly prescribed for conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease and diabetic gastroparesis.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Ecchymosis
• B. Jaundice
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypotension. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hypotension, especially after the first dose. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril is not typically associated with ecchymosis, jaundice, or hypokalemia as common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor the client for signs of hypotension.

Similar Questions