Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer iron dextran IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Administer a small test dose before giving the full dose
• B. Infuse the medication over 30 seconds
• C. Monitor client closely for hypertension
• D. Administer cyanocobalamin as an antidote if toxicity occurs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should plan to take when preparing to administer iron dextran IV is to administer a small test dose before giving the full dose. This is done to assess for any allergic reactions that the client may have to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because iron dextran should be infused slowly over a longer period, typically over 1-2 hours to reduce the risk of adverse reactions. Choice C is incorrect because iron dextran administration is more commonly associated with hypotension rather than hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because cyanocobalamin is not used as an antidote for iron dextran toxicity; instead, treatment for iron toxicity may involve supportive care, chelation therapy, or in severe cases, iron antidotes like deferoxamine.

2. A healthcare professional is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. When assessing the client, the healthcare professional should recognize that which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. History of diuretic use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering it to a client who already has hypotension could exacerbate this condition. Therefore, hypotension is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem. Incorrect Choices: B) Tachycardia is not a contraindication for administering diltiazem in atrial fibrillation as it is commonly used to control the heart rate. C) Decreased level of consciousness may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. D) History of diuretic use is not a contraindication if the client is not currently experiencing hypotension.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral tube feeding through an NG tube at 250 mL over 4 hr. The nurse should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)

• A. 63 mL/hr
• B. 36 mL/hr
• C. 78 mL/hr
• D. 90 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate for the enteral tube feeding, divide the total volume by the total time: 250 mL / 4 hr = 62.5 ≈ 63 mL/hr. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to deliver 63 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation result. B is too low, C is too high, and D is also too high based on the correct calculation.

4. A nurse is planning to administer chlorothiazide 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally and administered twice daily for a toddler who weighs 28.6 lb. The amount available is chlorothiazide oral suspension 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth)

• A. 2.6 mL
• B. 2.63 mL
• C. 2.7 mL
• D. 2.2 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To find the dose per administration, first convert the toddler's weight to kg: 28.6 lb ÷ 2.2 = 13 kg. Then calculate the total daily dose: 20 mg/kg × 13 kg = 260 mg/day. Since it is divided into two doses, each dose is 130 mg. The concentration of the oral suspension is 250 mg/5 mL = 50 mg/mL. Therefore, to find the volume needed per dose, divide the dose by the concentration: 130 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 2.6 mL per dose. Hence, the nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the dosage of chlorothiazide needed per dose based on the toddler's weight and the concentration of the oral suspension.

5. A client with chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis is prescribed epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Reduces blood pressure
• B. Inhibits clotting of fistula
• C. Promotes RBC production
• D. Stimulates growth of neutrophils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney failure. This helps in increasing the hemoglobin levels and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as epoetin alfa does not have direct effects on reducing blood pressure, inhibiting clotting of the fistula, or stimulating the growth of neutrophils.

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