Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer iron dextran IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Administer a small test dose before giving the full dose
• B. Infuse the medication over 30 seconds
• C. Monitor client closely for hypertension
• D. Administer cyanocobalamin as an antidote if toxicity occurs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should plan to take when preparing to administer iron dextran IV is to administer a small test dose before giving the full dose. This is done to assess for any allergic reactions that the client may have to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because iron dextran should be infused slowly over a longer period, typically over 1-2 hours to reduce the risk of adverse reactions. Choice C is incorrect because iron dextran administration is more commonly associated with hypotension rather than hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because cyanocobalamin is not used as an antidote for iron dextran toxicity; instead, treatment for iron toxicity may involve supportive care, chelation therapy, or in severe cases, iron antidotes like deferoxamine.

2. A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who is to begin long-term oral prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Stop taking the medication if a rash occurs.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
• C. Schedule the medication on alternate days to decrease adverse effects.
• D. Treat shortness of breath with an extra dose of the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When initiating long-term oral prednisone therapy for asthma, it is essential to schedule the medication on alternate days. This approach helps reduce the risk of adverse effects commonly associated with corticosteroid use. Choice A is incorrect because abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choice B is incorrect as prednisone should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because using an extra dose of prednisone to treat shortness of breath is not appropriate and can lead to overdosing.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bleeding
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bleeding. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Therefore, one of the main adverse effects of clopidogrel is an increased risk of bleeding. Insomnia (Choice A), hypotension (Choice B), and constipation (Choice D) are not commonly associated with clopidogrel use. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, is crucial when a client is taking clopidogrel.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral tube feeding through an NG tube at 250 mL over 4 hr. The nurse should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)

• A. 63 mL/hr
• B. 36 mL/hr
• C. 78 mL/hr
• D. 90 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate for the enteral tube feeding, divide the total volume by the total time: 250 mL / 4 hr = 62.5 ≈ 63 mL/hr. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to deliver 63 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation result. B is too low, C is too high, and D is also too high based on the correct calculation.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about administering morphine via IV bolus to a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Respiratory depression can occur within 7 minutes after the morphine is administered.
• B. The morphine will peak within a few minutes.
• C. Withhold the morphine if the client has a respiratory rate less than 16/min.
• D. Administer the morphine over 2 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because respiratory depression is a significant risk when administering morphine, and it can occur within 7 minutes after administration. This information is crucial for the nurse to recognize and respond promptly. Choice B is incorrect because the peak effect of morphine via IV bolus is typically reached within a few minutes, not specifically 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect because withholding morphine based solely on a respiratory rate less than 16/min may not be appropriate without considering other factors such as pain level, oxygen saturation, and overall respiratory status. Choice D is incorrect because administering morphine over 2 minutes may not prevent respiratory depression if it occurs rapidly after administration. Nurses should be vigilant for signs of respiratory depression regardless of the administration duration.

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