ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a client who reports fatigue and cold intolerance. The client has an increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level and a decreased total T3 and T4 level. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Methimazole
- B. Somatropin
- C. Levothyroxine
- D. Propylthiouracil
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Levothyroxine is the correct answer. In this scenario, the client's elevated TSH and decreased T3 and T4 levels indicate hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough hormones. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of thyroid hormone that is used to replace or supplement the body's naturally produced thyroid hormones. Methimazole and Propylthiouracil are used to treat hyperthyroidism by reducing the production of thyroid hormones. Somatropin is a growth hormone used to treat growth hormone deficiency and other conditions unrelated to thyroid disorders.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of oral candidiasis after taking tetracycline for 7 days. The nurse should recognize that candidiasis is a manifestation of which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Allergic response
- B. Superinfection
- C. Renal toxicity
- D. Hepatotoxicity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Candidiasis is a type of superinfection that can occur when antibiotics, like tetracycline, disrupt the normal flora, allowing overgrowth of fungi. Option A, allergic response, is incorrect because candidiasis is not typically an allergic reaction. Option C, renal toxicity, and option D, hepatotoxicity, are incorrect as they refer to adverse effects on the kidneys and liver, respectively, which are not directly related to the development of candidiasis.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about metoclopramide. The nurse should include in the teaching that which of the following conditions is a contraindication to this medication?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Intestinal obstruction
- C. Glaucoma
- D. Low blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intestinal obstruction. Metoclopramide is contraindicated in clients with intestinal obstruction due to its prokinetic effects, which could exacerbate the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because metoclopramide is not contraindicated in hyperthyroidism, glaucoma, or low blood pressure. Hyperthyroidism, glaucoma, and low blood pressure are not specific contraindications for metoclopramide use, and this medication is commonly prescribed for conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease and diabetic gastroparesis.
4. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Oxytocin
- B. Nifedipine
- C. Dinoprostone
- D. Misoprostol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice because it is a calcium channel blocker that helps relax the uterus and stop preterm labor. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce labor, not to stop preterm labor. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used to induce labor and ripen the cervix, not to stop preterm labor.
5. When administering subcutaneous epinephrine for a client experiencing anaphylaxis, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hyperthermia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when administering subcutaneous epinephrine for anaphylaxis is tachycardia. Epinephrine stimulates adrenergic receptors, leading to an increased heart rate (tachycardia). Hypotension (Choice A) is less likely due to the vasoconstrictive effects of epinephrine. Hyperthermia (Choice B) and hypoglycemia (Choice C) are not commonly associated with epinephrine administration for anaphylaxis.
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