ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking isoniazid and rifampin for 3 weeks for the treatment of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The client reports his urine is an orange color. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Stop taking the isoniazid for 3 days and the discoloration should go away.
- B. Rifampin can turn body fluids orange.
- C. I'll make an appointment for you to see the provider this afternoon.
- D. Isoniazid can cause bladder irritation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Rifampin can turn body fluids orange.' Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. This side effect is harmless and does not indicate a need to stop the medication. Choice A is incorrect because stopping isoniazid will not resolve the orange urine discoloration caused by rifampin. Choice C is unnecessary at this point since the orange urine is a known side effect of rifampin and does not require an urgent provider visit. Choice D is incorrect because bladder irritation is not typically associated with isoniazid.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number).
- A. 21 gtt/min
- B. 20 gtt/min
- C. 25 gtt/min
- D. 18 gtt/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the IV infusion rate in gtt/min: 1000 mL / 480 min × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83 ≈ 21 gtt/min. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B (20 gtt/min) is incorrect because the calculation results in 20.83 gtt/min, rounded to 21. Choices C (25 gtt/min) and D (18 gtt/min) are incorrect as they are not the closest whole number approximation to the calculated value.
3. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include that a severe allergy to which of the following medications is a contraindication to ceftriaxone?
- A. Gentamicin
- B. Clindamycin
- C. Piperacillin
- D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Ceftriaxone, a cephalosporin antibiotic, has a cross-sensitivity with penicillin antibiotics like piperacillin. Therefore, a severe allergy to penicillin or penicillin-related antibiotics would be a contraindication to ceftriaxone. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not associated with a known cross-sensitivity with ceftriaxone.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about administering morphine via IV bolus to a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Respiratory depression can occur within 7 minutes after the morphine is administered.
- B. The morphine will peak within a few minutes.
- C. Withhold the morphine if the client has a respiratory rate less than 16/min.
- D. Administer the morphine over 2 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because respiratory depression is a significant risk when administering morphine, and it can occur within 7 minutes after administration. This information is crucial for the nurse to recognize and respond promptly. Choice B is incorrect because the peak effect of morphine via IV bolus is typically reached within a few minutes, not specifically 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect because withholding morphine based solely on a respiratory rate less than 16/min may not be appropriate without considering other factors such as pain level, oxygen saturation, and overall respiratory status. Choice D is incorrect because administering morphine over 2 minutes may not prevent respiratory depression if it occurs rapidly after administration. Nurses should be vigilant for signs of respiratory depression regardless of the administration duration.
5. A nurse is administering insulin glulisine 10 units subcutaneously at 0730 to an adolescent client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should anticipate the onset of action of the insulin at which of the following times?
- A. 0745
- B. 0700
- C. 0645
- D. 0457
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Insulin glulisine has a rapid onset of action, typically around 15 minutes. Therefore, the nurse should expect the onset around 0745. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the expected onset time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the typical onset time of insulin glulisine.
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