nurse is preparing to administer heparin 8000 units subcutaneously every eight hrs the amount available is heparin injection 10000 unitsml how many mi
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hours. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume of heparin to administer per dose, divide the prescribed dose (8,000 units) by the concentration of heparin available (10,000 units/mL). 8000 units / 10000 units/mL = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL per dose. Choice B, 0.9 mL, is incorrect as the correct calculation results in 0.8 mL. Choices C and D are significantly higher and incorrect, indicating an inaccurate calculation.

2. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for amitriptyline to treat depression. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse plan to perform prior to starting the client on this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Electrocardiogram. Amitriptyline can cause cardiac arrhythmias, so an electrocardiogram is necessary before starting treatment. A hearing examination (choice A) is not required before initiating amitriptyline. A glucose tolerance test (choice B) is not indicated for starting this medication. Pulmonary function tests (choice D) are not necessary before initiating amitriptyline for depression.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV infusion rate in gtt/min: 1000 mL / 480 min × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83 ≈ 21 gtt/min. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B (20 gtt/min) is incorrect because the calculation results in 20.83 gtt/min, rounded to 21. Choices C (25 gtt/min) and D (18 gtt/min) are incorrect as they are not the closest whole number approximation to the calculated value.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine specific gravity of 1.035. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration as the kidneys conserve water in response to dehydration. Choice B, oliguria, refers to decreased urine output, which can be a sign of dehydration but is not specific to it. Choice C, increased urine concentration, is a general term and does not directly indicate dehydration. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030.

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