ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?
- A. 4
- B. 7 (comatose)
- C. 9
- D. 10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.
2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 11,000/mm³
- B. Hgb 11.2 g/dL
- C. Hct 34%
- D. Platelets 140,000/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A platelet count of 140,000/mm³ is at the lower end of the normal range but can be concerning in pregnancy, especially if there are signs of thrombocytopenia or bleeding. Thrombocytopenia in pregnancy can lead to complications such as bleeding during childbirth or excessive bleeding postpartum. The other laboratory values mentioned are within normal ranges for pregnancy and do not typically raise immediate concerns. High WBC counts can be a normal response to pregnancy, hemoglobin levels around 11.2 g/dL and hematocrit levels around 34% are also considered normal in the third trimester.
3. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?
- A. Spinach
- B. Peanut butter
- C. Ground beef
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.
4. When educating a client about valproic acid, which instruction is essential?
- A. Monitor for rash
- B. Expect weight loss
- C. Consider it safe during pregnancy
- D. Purchase it over-the-counter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for rash. Valproic acid can lead to severe skin rashes, and patients must be vigilant to report any rash promptly. Choice B is incorrect as valproic acid is more likely to cause weight gain. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is associated with birth defects and should be avoided during pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as valproic acid is a prescription medication and not available over-the-counter.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer rapidly
- B. Dilute the medication before administration
- C. Give it as a bolus
- D. Administer it intramuscularly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action when administering potassium chloride is to dilute the medication before administration. Potassium chloride is a highly concentrated solution that can cause irritation and potential complications if not properly diluted. Administering it rapidly (choice A) can lead to adverse effects. Giving it as a bolus (choice C) or administering it intramuscularly (choice D) are inappropriate routes for potassium chloride administration and can result in harm to the patient.
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